Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,963 questions • 9,761 answers • 999,243 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,963 questions • 9,761 answers • 999,243 learners
I have a doubt. I came across the following sentences in a book:
1. El ruido me bombardea los tímpanos sin cesar cada día
2. Los sonidos resurgían dentro de mis tímpanos
Sentence 1 seems like a perfect example of how you explained in this article. But what about sentence 2? Why would we use the adjective here instead of the article?
Thanks!
Why is estaba used in the sentence-
Después del baño, estaba muy calmado y feliz.
Why not era. Is it because describing feeling in the past?
menos ustedes is correct. menos Uds is wrong. Why?
You answer 'los doctores PREFIERE but the plural form is PREFIEREN, which is an option
Can you help please
I can't speak for Europe or Australia but I can tell you that in the U.S. no one is ever going to say, "We've seen the singer sign autographs to the fans." The correct construction for this verb is to sign autographs FOR fans...not to the fans. If I heard someone say this I would assume they were not a native speaker of English.
I see oenegés as the original transcript - but wouldn't it be O.N.G. like the acronym in English?
How do learners remember when to use the "de" described above? Do native speakers learn it only from growing up with the language? I don't see any particular rule for knowing when to use the "de" and when not to--how "wrong" is it to omit the "de?"
Correct answer: Lo que.
I entered: La cosa que.
I can't understand why la cosa que can't be used in this instance?
When should we use "Si" or "Como?"
With the sentence below, is it also ok to use Si? If not, why? Is it because Si triggers the subjunctive?
Como me ofrezcan el trabajo voy a hacer una gran fiesta.
Find your Spanish level for FREE
And get your personalised Study Plan to improve it
Find your Spanish level