I see here that querer does not have an accent for the first person preterito indefinido: quise, whereas some verbs have one, like compré - is there a rule that I can apply to distinguish it, or is it just because querer is irregular?
There is a rule indeed, or I should say a group of verbs that all have a different stem but they share the same endings and don't have the accent on the last syllable. You can see the link at the bottom of that lesson about querer in the preterite. Here's the link.
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