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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,070 questions • 9,929 answers • 1,030,202 learners
My question from yesterday was poorly worded. One sees "algo que" with most verbs as in "Tiene algo que declarar/hacer" but one sees "algo de" or "algo para" with "Tiene algo de comer/beber?" or "Tiene algo para comer/beber?" Most verbs seem to take "algo que" in translators when there is an infinitive afterward and certainly when there is a conjugated verb after "algo." Are "algo de comer/beber" and "algo para comer/beber" just idioms or set phrases? If not, when does one use "algo que" vs "algo de " (which can also mean some or a bit of) and "algo para"?
"It can be used in the singular, for example se tarda, se tardó or in the plural, for example se tardan, se tardaron. Se tardó dos horas en llegar. = Se tardaron dos horas en llegar. It took two hours to arrive."
So both examples mean precisely the same thing? Is there a situation where the meaning would change?
Why is the answer to " When she opens her present, she often gets perfume.
Why is the answer "abre" and not " abra"?
I came to this lesson from the quiz question:
Marta y yo ________ 200 km a la semana para ir a trabajar. Marta and I travel 200 km a week to go to work.(HINT: Conjugate "hacer" in El Presente)
Answer was “hacemos”, but I was expecting an explanation on why the verb “hacer” (to make) is applicable to what in English would be “travel”.
There are examples here with "demasiado dinero" and another with "tanto dinero" both meaning "too much money." That's very annoying.
In the sentence:Ellas a luz a unos gemelos preciosos. (They gave birth to beautiful twins),
1) does "ellas" indicate 'several women gave birth to several sets of twins'?
2) If a married couple had A set of twins, would that be ' ellOs a luz a un gemelo precioso?, Or does 'a luz' literally only refer to the mother who gives birth?
Thanks
Wouldn't "rosas" be the correct form of the adjective to go with "lámparas"?
If I understand this right, this conditional tense can be used both for what was possible/probable in the past as well as for what could be/would be for the future?
I am used to seeing this tense in sentences such as
¿Podría llamarme mañana?
Could you call me tomorrow?/ Would you be able to call me tomorrow?
Please could you explain the following:
Los chicos estaban sentados en el borde de la piscina. correct
Los chicos estaban sentando en el borde de la piscina. not correct
The boys were sitting on the edge of the pool.
I am pretty sure that I have been taught to use the gerund rather than than the past participle in this kind of an example.
Many thanks (Mainland Spain)
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