Spanish language Q&A Forum

¿En este ejemplo por qué la forma segunda persona singular del verbo dar se usa para el imperativo?

Here is my question in English, in case my question in Spanish is incorrect or just too awkward:

In this example, why is the 2nd person singular form of the verb, dar, used for the imperative?

Sorry, Im a little confussed.

Before I attempt to answer this, isn't patience an adjective (modifying Victor, the noun).  Or is it referring to "few patients (pacientes)- not little patience" as a quantity?  

In otherwords, I believe paciencia is an adjective (quality - not quantity), and I think the poco would be a modifier and not be changed.  It would stay poco. Right?

But if the word was patients (pacientes- quantitiy of patients), then the poco would change to poca, because paciente is a feminine noun.

"Ayer hice unas baleadas para mis invitados y les encantó."

Would "encantarón" be more appropriate here, since it is the (plural) baleadas that are being so much enjoyed (that are "enchanting")? Or is it implied that it is the act of making the baleadas (hice unas baleadas) that is enchanting, and therefore the singular, encantó is better here? 

In the quiz asking for “half a sandwich”, I put “la mitad de un bocadillo” instead of “medio bocadillo” and was marked incorrect.  

Is my answer in fact incorrect or just not what the answer was looking for? When we say “half a sandwich” in English, my understanding is that it is really shorthand for “half (of) a sandwich” and so I thought either “la mitad de” or “medio” would be correct - perhaps that is not true in Spanish?  

Thanks in advance for your explanation.

I was just reading over the questions, and wondered about this one:

"with some adjectives like mucho/mucha, hambre would take the feminine form (mucha hambre). It works the same way as the word "agua": (el agua caliente, but mucha agua caliente)"

Is there a rule and  lesson that covers this? It certainly is a curious phenomena.

Nicole