alguno vs algunos, alguna vs algunasThere seem to be a lot of confusion around this subject. especially when using the word 'some.'
Could you please explain the difference illustrated in these two examples.
Tengo muchas postales de Venecia,
¿quieres algunas?
I have many postcards from Venice, do you want some?
He imprimido nuestras fotografías del viaje, ¿quieres ver
alguna?
I have printed the pictures of our
trip, do you want to see some?
And just as an aside, the sentences in English should be separated by either a semi-colon or a period, not a comma. When a comma is used to separate two independent clauses, it's called a comma splice or a run-on sentence. I'm not trying to be a know-it-all. This is in the spirit of having the best grammar.
There seem to be a lot of confusion around this subject. especially when using the word 'some.'
Could you please explain the difference illustrated in these two examples.
Tengo muchas postales de Venecia, ¿quieres algunas?
I have many postcards from Venice, do you want some?
He imprimido nuestras fotografías del viaje, ¿quieres ver alguna?
I have printed the pictures of our trip, do you want to see some?
And just as an aside, the sentences in English should be separated by either a semi-colon or a period, not a comma. When a comma is used to separate two independent clauses, it's called a comma splice or a run-on sentence. I'm not trying to be a know-it-all. This is in the spirit of having the best grammar.
My question from yesterday was poorly worded. One sees "algo que" with most verbs as in "Tiene algo que declarar/hacer" but one sees "algo de" or "algo para" with "Tiene algo de comer/beber?" or "Tiene algo para comer/beber?" Most verbs seem to take "algo que" in translators when there is an infinitive afterward and certainly when there is a conjugated verb after "algo." Are "algo de comer/beber" and "algo para comer/beber" just idioms or set phrases? If not, when does one use "algo que" vs "algo de " (which can also mean some or a bit of) and "algo para"?
"It can be used in the singular, for example se tarda, se tardó or in the plural, for example se tardan, se tardaron. Se tardó dos horas en llegar. = Se tardaron dos horas en llegar. It took two hours to arrive."
So both examples mean precisely the same thing? Is there a situation where the meaning would change?
I came to this lesson from the quiz question:
Marta y yo ________ 200 km a la semana para ir a trabajar. Marta and I travel 200 km a week to go to work.(HINT: Conjugate "hacer" in El Presente)
Answer was “hacemos”, but I was expecting an explanation on why the verb “hacer” (to make) is applicable to what in English would be “travel”.
If I understand this right, this conditional tense can be used both for what was possible/probable in the past as well as for what could be/would be for the future?
I am used to seeing this tense in sentences such as
¿Podría llamarme mañana?
Could you call me tomorrow?/ Would you be able to call me tomorrow?
in number 8 why is it fue premiado and not estuvo premiado?
Consejo(s) is used twice in the exercise. At first, the impression is that this is a singular word (consejo) in Spanish where it would be plural in English (tips). But later at the end it used in the plural (consejos) for the plural. This seems confusing to me.
Would it be correct to use Porque at the start of a sentence....e.g. instead of
Como estoy enfermo, no voy a ir al trabajo hoy.
Porque estoy enfermo, no voy a ir al trabajo hoy
So if it's a female trabajador or inversor then it's changed to la trabajadora and inversora ? Then following to Las and unas inversoras?
Thanks you
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