Spanish language Q&A Forum

In the quiz asking for “half a sandwich”, I put “la mitad de un bocadillo” instead of “medio bocadillo” and was marked incorrect.  

Is my answer in fact incorrect or just not what the answer was looking for? When we say “half a sandwich” in English, my understanding is that it is really shorthand for “half (of) a sandwich” and so I thought either “la mitad de” or “medio” would be correct - perhaps that is not true in Spanish?  

Thanks in advance for your explanation.

Please could you explain the following:

Los chicos estaban sentados en el borde de la piscina. correct
Los chicos estaban sentando en el borde de la piscina. not correct
The boys were sitting on the edge of the pool.

I am pretty sure that I have been taught to use the gerund rather than than the past participle in this kind of an example.

Many thanks  (Mainland Spain)

Hello,

Re: Por la mañana desayuno a las nueve.

I noticed in the above that the structure of the sentence is quite different. 

Could it also be: Desayuno a las nueve por la mañana.

If yes/or no why and what would the difference in meaning.

Are there any rules/lessons concerning this?

Thank you. Nicole 

Usted ________ el dinero en euros. You would be paid in euros.HINT: Conjugate "cobrar" in El Condicional Simple

This appears to be a passive construction in English. It makes me want to translate tú serías cobrado el dinero en euros.

As written, doesn't the sentence in English mean "You would pay in Euros?"

Hello,

I have come across this: "haber hecho" as in: 

"After having done this... Después de haber hecho esto... "

and searched here for this structure and found this lesson, but not this form for "haber hecho" nor did I find anything  online except one site calling it an idiom.

I was wondering what part of speech "haber hecho" is, I can't find it as a tense and have not been able to find its grammatical term.  I don't think this is an "idiom".  Thanks for your help in claryfing this.  

Nicole

 Imna, I'm curious to know, how frequently this structure is used in Spanish? Moreover, is it more common in Spain than say in Central and/or South America?

P.S. When I first read this lesson my thoughts were similar to Alan's. I too recognized that  there are similar 'past for present' verb structures in English.