Olvidar vs OlvidarseHi Inma
In the lesson you say:
"There is no difference in meaning. Using one or the other depends on what the person is used to; some regions in Spain use one form more than the other, but both are correct."
However, I always believed their is difference that exists between the two:
Olvidar = to forget by accident
1) Siempre olvido las llaves del coche = I always forget my car keys
2) ¡Ay no, olvidé hacer los deberes! = Oh no, I forgot to do the homework! (olvidar+infinitive)
Olvidarse de = to forget by choice, on purpose.
1) Ella se olvidó de sus problemas de dinero y se fue de compras = She forgot about her money problems and went shopping anyway (she chose to forget)
2) Solo quiero olvidarme de arruinar la fiesta de cumpleaños de mi hermano = I just want to forget about ruining my brother's birthday party (he's trying to forget)
I've always thought of it like the 'se' is indicating that someone is doing something to his/herself (like ducharse, bañarse etc). I'm unsure where I learned this!
The accidental 'se' part is new to me
Saludos
"Ayer hice unas baleadas para mis invitados y les encantó."
Would "encantarón" be more appropriate here, since it is the (plural) baleadas that are being so much enjoyed (that are "enchanting")? Or is it implied that it is the act of making the baleadas (hice unas baleadas) that is enchanting, and therefore the singular, encantó is better here?
Gerunds are nouns formed from verbs. The "ing" words you are translating here are called present participles. Gerunds & present participles have the same form in English, but they are different in Spanish. Eg. I like dancing=me gusta bailar. I am dancing= Estoy bailando.
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there are 2 separate lesson on this verb poder with the meaning of could, able to do something or not.
May I check if my understanding is correct?
Perfect tense and indefinido both means not being able to something, did not manage to do it, and we saw the result which is able or not able to. They have the same meaning but just that different time period will trigger each of them separately.
Whereas, imperfect tense is about the action not able or being able to do at a specific time but we did not know the ending.
Hope someone could help clarify.
Thanks
¿En este ejemplo por qué la forma segunda persona singular del verbo dar se usa para el imperativo?
Here is my question in English, in case my question in Spanish is incorrect or just too awkward:
In this example, why is the 2nd person singular form of the verb, dar, used for the imperative?
There Will be and There is going to be are identical in meaning. Is that the same for habrá and va a haber. Google translate doesn’t seem to make a distinction.
Hi! my first post, so first things first: kwiziq is great!
About the sentence "Ella piensa muy despacio." Isn't that supposed to be "despaciamente", as it is an adverb that describes the way she thinks?
Thank you!
Hi Inma
In the lesson you say:
"There is no difference in meaning. Using one or the other depends on what the person is used to; some regions in Spain use one form more than the other, but both are correct."
However, I always believed their is difference that exists between the two:
Olvidar = to forget by accident
1) Siempre olvido las llaves del coche = I always forget my car keys
2) ¡Ay no, olvidé hacer los deberes! = Oh no, I forgot to do the homework! (olvidar+infinitive)
Olvidarse de = to forget by choice, on purpose.
1) Ella se olvidó de sus problemas de dinero y se fue de compras = She forgot about her money problems and went shopping anyway (she chose to forget)
2) Solo quiero olvidarme de arruinar la fiesta de cumpleaños de mi hermano = I just want to forget about ruining my brother's birthday party (he's trying to forget)
I've always thought of it like the 'se' is indicating that someone is doing something to his/herself (like ducharse, bañarse etc). I'm unsure where I learned this!
The accidental 'se' part is new to me
Saludos
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