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Babita S.B1Kwiziq community member

Poco/poca and mucho/muchaMi abuela bebió poca Coca Cola pero yo bebí ________. My grandmother drank a little bit of coke but I drank a lot.

Why is it “mucha” not “mucho”? Is it because it modifies Coca Cola?

Asked 3 years ago

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Emanuel B.C1Kwiziq Q&A regular contributor

Why is será translated as it'd be and not it will be?

Asked 5 years ago

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Meghan Y.B2Kwiziq community member

Thanks - I think a light bulb went on for me!For months, in Costa Rica, I drove by a handwritten sign on the road that read "se chopean quintas". I knew what it meant - that he was advertising that he cut or weeded yards or fields but I couldn't understand the construction of the plural 3rd person chopear ( or maybe chapear?). Now, I think I get it, because quintas is plural so should chopear be plural. Correct? Thanks again

Asked 6 years ago

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GruffNative Spanish expert teacher in Kwiziq

Ser vs estar

I've just realised that this lesson needs more detail to cover ser and estar.

When talking about something earlier in the day, generally, something that uses estar will use imperfecto, not perfecto nor indefinido, breaking the rule completely! Whereas ser will follow the rule.

So if we ate something delicious this morning we'd say, "!Estaba rico!" not "he sido rico" nor "estuvo rico".

Estar by its nature expresses more transient states of being than ser and the imperfect tense matches this (at least, that's how it feels to me but as I'm not a native Spaniard, I look forward to hearing Kwiziq's native experts' views to expand or correct this for me!)

Asked 5 years ago

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Philip H.B1Kwiziq community member

Plurals of 'hay'

Why do you not use the plural form of 'hay' when the subject 'muchas cometas' is plural?

Asked 4 years ago

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Douglas D.A2Kwiziq community member

Pretérito perfecto / compuesto

What is the difference between ‘el pretérito perfecto’ and ‘el pretérito perfecto compuesto’ ?

Asked 4 years ago

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Donald S.C1Kwiziq community member

Ha sido + oast oartiple vs. Ha estado siendo

Asked 5 years ago

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Michael M.A1Kwiziq community member

What a beautiful speaking quality! She speaks clearly and distinctly and it was a joy following her. I did not have to depend on the text that much.

Asked 5 years ago

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Mohmmad Q.A1Kwiziq community member

¿Puedes venir a casa a las cinco?

i have two questions for this one first why there is an a after venir is it coz its

equivalent to be able to ?

second why five is las not la five is a number singular thx in advance for the support gracias

Asked 3 years ago

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Paris K.A1Kwiziq Q&A regular contributor

Agreement in gender and number

hi room and experts

Please clarify why 'tener + participio cases' must have agreement in gender and number with the noun acting as a direct object, whereas this rule does not apply in 'haber + participio cases'

For example - Tienes ya pensada la estrategia para convencer a Inés? - (show agreement)

He pintado dos habitaciones. (does not show agreement)

Asked 4 years ago

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