Spanish language Q&A Forum

I had wondered whether Spanish 'hay' and French 'il y a' were derived the same way - a combination of third person singular from the verb 'to have' ('ha' and 'a') and 'y'. 

Is that completely wrong?

Thanks

Tom

I was taught to use the phrase, "maquillarse la cara".  Is "maquillar su cara" natural to say in Spanish?  

I wrote "voy a maquillarle la cara", and I think this is also correct.

How old is Mafalda?

"¿Tú traes a tus padres a la graduación?"

Where do you put the subject pronoun in sentences?

Before or after the verb?

In this sentence, I see it before the verb, but sometimes it is after the verb.

Hola,

Is there a reason why "mande" is preceded by "que." It appears to translate as "Anyone who wants to apply for this job, that sends his CV to the address ....... etc."

Is the "que" obligatory to trigger the subjunctive? In that case does it translate as "that he / she send?"

Thanks. John

What is the difference between these 2? Both are expressing action in progress but I'd like to be more clear about when we would use each.

In the Kwiz at the bottom, "usteden" is used. What is this form? I have heard of vosotros for "you all", or "ustedes" for "you" when speaking to a group. But "usteden" is new to me. Can you clarify?

According to the kwiz, there are 2 correct answers to the question:

haya ganado ( my answer) 

ganara ( imperfect subjunctive)

The page on the subjunctive does not address using these subjunctives interchangeably. I learned that when the subjunctive trigger is in the present tense ( no está seguro) and the event being considered is in the past ( won the competition), the present perfect subjunctive is called for. Do you have a lesson the the distinction?

Why do you say "votar por" and not "para", since the person you vote for benefits?