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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,924 questions • 9,691 answers • 981,461 learners
I was taught to use the phrase, "maquillarse la cara". Is "maquillar su cara" natural to say in Spanish?
I wrote "voy a maquillarle la cara", and I think this is also correct.
I had wondered whether Spanish 'hay' and French 'il y a' were derived the same way - a combination of third person singular from the verb 'to have' ('ha' and 'a') and 'y'.
Is that completely wrong?
Thanks
Tom
The question is:
Qué ________ por ese chico?What do you feel for that guy?
The answer given was sientes. However for me a possible answer to the question could be "I feel happy for him" which translates (hopefully) into Me siento feliz para él. So should the answer to your question not the reflexive "te sientes"
(Sorry, this is not really a question, but a hopefully helpful comment.)
Colloquially in English we often use the future tense to express present probabilities or predictions, just like the Spanish. E.g. We could say "I'm not sure where John is, but he'll be practising his Spanish I should think." Or "Do you think Fred has arrived home yet? Oh, he'll be relaxing with his feet up by now."
foggy and sunny both are adjectives, the why is it hay niebla and esta soleado?
It seems that one can use both sobre and hacia to express that "at around/around" a certain time something is happening. e.g. "I meet you at around seven".
Can they be used interchangeably in this context or is there a difference between when one would use sobre and when hacia?
Why are numbers written with the feminine article when telling time "es la una y media", but written with the masculine article when writing the date, "mi cumpleaños es el uno/primero de enero"?
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