Spanish language Q&A Forum

Am I correct in understanding that with bueno/malo, putting it before the noun creates more emphasis?

Like " mi padre es un hombre bueno." -My father is a good man.

"Mi padre es un buen hombre." -My father is a [really] good man.

As far as I can see, the text doesn’t discuss ‘hasta’ which is listed as an option in the answers but marks as wrong. My dictionary seems to have some examples where ‘hasta’ is used for movement towards a place. What is the distinction?

Hello,

I have had a lot of difficulty distinguishing between choosing whether a verb is in the imperative or subjunctive in some complex sentences. 

Is there a clear way to determine this? 

For example, I'm not sure which of the 3 categories in the lesson, this sentence I came across and failed to identify as subjunctive, would fall under: 

"Al final será el consumidor quien pague la factura."

I would have used the present or imperative here more so. (Would it be possible?)

Thank you,

Nicole

Hola,

In a Spanish show, a character says to another:

Tú no sales de aquí hasta que no me traigas a ese chico.

Which I believe roughly translates to "You are not to go out until you bring this guy to me."  If that is the case, could you explain why the subordinate sentence would be negated with no.  Wouldn't it be:

Tú no sales de aquí hasta que me traigas a ese chico.

Thank you for your help!