llamar with indirect or direct objectsi read from one of the question asked before in one of the grammar lesson, and it is confirmed that llamar is a transitive verb and takes direct object but comes with a preposition A because it is personal a. llamar + a + alguien.
But then i also came across llamar a la puerta for example. why is there a preposition A?
or did i get it wrong that it is not personal A but a fixed expression with llamar + a + any direct objects?
voy a llamar a Juan = voy a llamarlo, voy a llamar a la puerta = voy a llamarla.
But i did come across sentences that do not use preposition a for llamar.
le llamo idiota a juan - i called juan idiot. is this correct?
Other than calling people directly like telephoning or shouting for them, we can also call them names. is this where there wont be preposition A?
sorry for my errors as i am still not familiar with using the llamar verb.
Hola Inma,
"Cuando le conocí", is this a case of leísmo?.
My answer was lo conocí and it's been marked wrong.
Could you, please, explain?
Saludos
Ελισάβετ
Me gusta el vídeo. La narradora habló con mucha claridad. Gracias.
I want you to help me with simple way of understanding Spanish preterite please
What are the rules for conjucating "acabe de"? Is it:
yo: acabo detu: acababas deel/ella/ud: acaba denosotros: acababamos devosotros: ?ellas/ellos/uds: acababan de
The question reads, "How would you say "The person I went to the party with was my father."
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The below answer was marked as a correct answer.
"La persona con la que fui a la fiesta era mi padre."
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Why use the pronoun, la, when the object is padre, a man?
Thank you, James
¿es posibe usa detestar en lugar de odiar?
I can say "I like white wine" and also "I prefer white wine". Is it the same in Spanish? - I know there's a difference (i.e. comparison vs general) and wondering how similar it is to the English usage (which can be subtle at times).
i read from one of the question asked before in one of the grammar lesson, and it is confirmed that llamar is a transitive verb and takes direct object but comes with a preposition A because it is personal a. llamar + a + alguien.
But then i also came across llamar a la puerta for example. why is there a preposition A?
or did i get it wrong that it is not personal A but a fixed expression with llamar + a + any direct objects?
voy a llamar a Juan = voy a llamarlo, voy a llamar a la puerta = voy a llamarla.
But i did come across sentences that do not use preposition a for llamar.
le llamo idiota a juan - i called juan idiot. is this correct?
Other than calling people directly like telephoning or shouting for them, we can also call them names. is this where there wont be preposition A?
sorry for my errors as i am still not familiar with using the llamar verb.
Re: Sentence above:
No, no me gusta la paella.No, I do not like paella.
In the lesson above, I was surprised to hear how the word "paella" was pronounced. I had never heard that pronunciation. My question is, are the letters "ae" considered a diphthong, and if so, what would be its pronunciation?
Thank you and wishing you a great day!
Nicole
Would another way of explaining the difference be to say that in English you could get the meaning of the imperfect by saying "The teacher [was] opened[ing] the door" and the indefinido as "The teacher [had] opened the door"
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