Pondering subjunctiveIt appears to me that by deciding to use subjuctive in the second clause of the sentence, creates the doubt. Therefore, however I set up the statement does not really matter. Generally, I will have created doubt. I am guess that generally the doubt it pushed onto the first clause, meaning:
Me alegro de que hayas viajado a diferentes países.
I am pleased that you have travelled to different countries.
Me alego (I am pleased, as long as it was pleasing, but maybe it was not so pleasing for you afterall)... or is it that I am pleased, but you may not have really travelled the world. Which is the sentiment? Am I on the right track? I am guessing the first.
What is the sentiment if I were to say "Estoy feliz que hayas viajado a diferentes países".
In the examples of "¿Quién prepara la fiesta a Sofía?" and "Nosotros les preparamos la cena a nuestros invitados."
Why use 'a' instead of 'para' (for) or 'por' (on behalf of)?
Ricky
It appears to me that by deciding to use subjuctive in the second clause of the sentence, creates the doubt. Therefore, however I set up the statement does not really matter. Generally, I will have created doubt. I am guess that generally the doubt it pushed onto the first clause, meaning:
Me alegro de que hayas viajado a diferentes países.
I am pleased that you have travelled to different countries.
Me alego (I am pleased, as long as it was pleasing, but maybe it was not so pleasing for you afterall)... or is it that I am pleased, but you may not have really travelled the world. Which is the sentiment? Am I on the right track? I am guessing the first.
What is the sentiment if I were to say "Estoy feliz que hayas viajado a diferentes países".
Hola,
I'm not sure why the above phrase translates as "a lot of leisure activities available in Madrid." The phrase appears to be singular (hay una) so I would have expected it to translate as something like "There is a great / important leisure activity on offer / available." Is "oferta" invariable for singular and plural?
Would appreciate your help.
Thanks. John
please, help to understand why when I am using formal question
tiene un boligrafo is correct but
tiene usted un boligrafo marked as incorrect
¿En este ejemplo por qué la forma segunda persona singular del verbo dar se usa para el imperativo?
Here is my question in English, in case my question in Spanish is incorrect or just too awkward:
In this example, why is the 2nd person singular form of the verb, dar, used for the imperative?
I learned naranja as the fruit and anaranjado/a as the color. Obviously language can be used differently throughout the Spanish-speaking communities! Is that the case here?
"Ayer hice unas baleadas para mis invitados y les encantó."
Would "encantarón" be more appropriate here, since it is the (plural) baleadas that are being so much enjoyed (that are "enchanting")? Or is it implied that it is the act of making the baleadas (hice unas baleadas) that is enchanting, and therefore the singular, encantó is better here?
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