Spanish language Q&A Forum

in number 8 why is it fue premiado and not estuvo premiado?

I didn't know you could touch on the words for a translation! 

I've only just found out

Would another way of explaining the difference be to say that in English you could get the meaning of  the imperfect by saying "The teacher [was] opened[ing] the door" and the indefinido as "The teacher [had] opened the door"

Hola,

Is there a reason why "mande" is preceded by "que." It appears to translate as "Anyone who wants to apply for this job, that sends his CV to the address ....... etc."

Is the "que" obligatory to trigger the subjunctive? In that case does it translate as "that he / she send?"

Thanks. John

I had wondered whether Spanish 'hay' and French 'il y a' were derived the same way - a combination of third person singular from the verb 'to have' ('ha' and 'a') and 'y'. 

Is that completely wrong?

Thanks

Tom

WWhen do you use divertido instead of divertida

It seems that one can use both sobre and hacia to express that "at around/around" a certain time something is happening. e.g. "I meet you at around seven". 

Can they be used interchangeably in this context or is there a difference between when one would use sobre and when hacia? 

Usually the conditional tense adds "would" to the verb. E.g. comería, would eat; habría, would have; vendría, would come, etc. But "should" is not the same as "would". It implies a duty or obligation, whereas "would" does not.

So debería etc. seems to be an exception because it means "should" not "would"!

In the quiz asking for “half a sandwich”, I put “la mitad de un bocadillo” instead of “medio bocadillo” and was marked incorrect.  

Is my answer in fact incorrect or just not what the answer was looking for? When we say “half a sandwich” in English, my understanding is that it is really shorthand for “half (of) a sandwich” and so I thought either “la mitad de” or “medio” would be correct - perhaps that is not true in Spanish?  

Thanks in advance for your explanation.