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6,013 questions • 9,827 answers • 1,013,022 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,013 questions • 9,827 answers • 1,013,022 learners
I had to look up and remind myself about the two possible derivatives of "bendecir" - i.e. bendecido [participle] and bendito [adjective]. Clarification was necessary because I remembered that the future tense of "bendecir" is 'regular' - i.e. "bendeciré" - [unlike decir > diré].
Another 'peculiar' change which might be worth mentioning in this lesson is the way in which "pudrir" becomes "podrido" when forming its past participle.
Of possible interest too, is the pair "corrompido" [participle] as opposed to "corrupto" [adjective]; (we never see "corroto").
I'm confused about what the difference is between these two words.
In the question "Yo no loraría aunque me [dejar]", with the hint that it is a hypothetical situation, it's clear that the subjunctive should be used. But why is it wrong to use the present subjunctive "dejes", and is only the imperfect "dejaras" correct?
What is the difference between this and the sentence Voy a salir después aunque llueva mucho. which is in the lesson "Aunque + el presente vs el presente de subjunctivo"?
Is it because of the conditional?
why does dar conjugate the preterite as an "ir"verb
Kwiziq: ...las piezas cerámicas de colores.
Me: ...las piezas de cerámica coloreada.
Can you explain the difference please?
Saludos
"La" is only used as the feminine for a direct object, correct? So in this example from the lesson the first "her" (se) is the indirect object of "dar" but the the second "her" is a direct object of "ver"?
Se lo daré cuando la vea.
I will give it to her when I see her.
If the second "her" were an indirect object, it would be "le", right? For example, is this correct?
Se lo daré cuando le hable.
I will give it to her when I talk to her.
Thank you!
Why do you not use the plural form of 'hay' when the subject 'muchas cometas' is plural?
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