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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,964 questions • 9,751 answers • 996,162 learners
I had to look up and remind myself about the two possible derivatives of "bendecir" - i.e. bendecido [participle] and bendito [adjective]. Clarification was necessary because I remembered that the future tense of "bendecir" is 'regular' - i.e. "bendeciré" - [unlike decir > diré].
Another 'peculiar' change which might be worth mentioning in this lesson is the way in which "pudrir" becomes "podrido" when forming its past participle.
Of possible interest too, is the pair "corrompido" [participle] as opposed to "corrupto" [adjective]; (we never see "corroto").
"La" is only used as the feminine for a direct object, correct? So in this example from the lesson the first "her" (se) is the indirect object of "dar" but the the second "her" is a direct object of "ver"?
Se lo daré cuando la vea.
I will give it to her when I see her.
If the second "her" were an indirect object, it would be "le", right? For example, is this correct?
Se lo daré cuando le hable.
I will give it to her when I talk to her.
Thank you!
For example,
Tengo que ir al colegio.
Instead of using "voy", ir was used. Why is that?
Thanks.
These rules for verb tenses when using por si/por si acaso are really hard to keep straight. Does it sound really awful to a native speaker if we get it wrong?
I recall that an earlier lesson mentioned the phrase "entre si" meaning "among themselves". The pronoun "si" seems to be the object version of the reflexive pronoun "se". When following the preposition "con", it also contracts to "consigo" just like "conmigo" and "contigo". The word "consigo" is also the same form as the first person present tense indicative mode of "conseguir". Maybe these discussions can be added to this lesson? Also, let me know if the pronoun "si" carries an accent or not. I think there is but I am not sure. Thank you.
¡Hola! Leí una página que indica que "a menos de que" es un dequeísmo y no es correcto (aunque si lo uso, se entiende). ¿Es así? ¿O hay una diferencia entre los dos que depende en lo que viene antes y después? Y sea lo que sea, eso se aplica a otros tal como "con tal de que," "antes de que," y "después de que?"
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