Using the '-se' suffix with vosotros?In an e-mail entitled: "A new error has been submitted by a user [#252851]", Laura Lawless today (4th May) asked me to repost this here:
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Question 6 in the [first] 'StudyPlan' quiz which I did on 3rd May, required a translation for:
"You two, wash your hair!"
The 'vosotros' part was already provided for us, so I chose:
Vosotros dos, ¡A lavaros el pelo!
However, I was marked incorrect, because you said that another possible option is:
Vosotros dos, ¡A lavarse el pelo!
>> But surely the "-se" suffix is not compatible with "vosotros"? … i.e., it has to be '-os', [only '-os', not both].
In an e-mail entitled: "A new error has been submitted by a user [#252851]", Laura Lawless today (4th May) asked me to repost this here:
>
Question 6 in the [first] 'StudyPlan' quiz which I did on 3rd May, required a translation for:
"You two, wash your hair!"
The 'vosotros' part was already provided for us, so I chose:
Vosotros dos, ¡A lavaros el pelo!
However, I was marked incorrect, because you said that another possible option is:
Vosotros dos, ¡A lavarse el pelo!
>> But surely the "-se" suffix is not compatible with "vosotros"? … i.e., it has to be '-os', [only '-os', not both].
No leiste ningún libro de italiano.
For "any Italian books" why is this not "nigunos libros italianos"?
I [incorrectly] made "mejor" plural - to agree with "they" - by writing: "Eran aún mejores que en mis sueños". [Or could it also be correct with "mejores"?]
Perhaps we have to regard "mejor" as an adverb here, not as an adjective - so we should not make it plural - despite the fact that (in English) it looks like a complement of the verb "eran".
My grammar book (by Butt and Benjamin) seems to confirm that^ by giving the example "Aquí estamos mejor" = "We're better [off] here".
It seems that we need to be careful in deciding whether a particular word in Spanish should be treated as an adverb rather than an adjective. In particular, we should avoid the temptation of trying to judge it according to its grammatical context in English. [A well known example of that, is of course "Está bien"].
I wonder if there is an error in this question:
Este hotel, ________ inauguración fue ayer, va a recibir muchos turistas alemanes.
I think that the answer should be cuyo (because hotel is a masculine noun), but the Kwiziq answer on the test question is cuya. Is this a mistake on Kwiziq's part, or am I not understanding something?
there are 2 separate lesson on this verb poder with the meaning of could, able to do something or not.
May I check if my understanding is correct?
Perfect tense and indefinido both means not being able to something, did not manage to do it, and we saw the result which is able or not able to. They have the same meaning but just that different time period will trigger each of them separately.
Whereas, imperfect tense is about the action not able or being able to do at a specific time but we did not know the ending.
Hope someone could help clarify.
Thanks
WWhen do you use divertido instead of divertida
I believe that a couple of the examples used are commands (Imperatives), not subjunctive. Please clarify. Thanks
example:
¿Dígame? - Hola, ¿puedo hablar con Juan?[on the phone, lit: speak to me] Hello? - Hello, may I speak to Juan?
Can they be used synonymously? What is the difference in meaning and use between the two?
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