Spanish language Q&A Forum

I wrote "La familia está" since it seems to discuss a relationship. The correct answer is given as "La familia es". So, "es" seems to be a strong opinion. Couldn't both be correct?

Also, the issue with my answer doesn't really relate to plural versus singular ("es" vs "está"). 

¡Hola!

Could you please provide me with Spanish equivalents for modal structures of probabality:

-Must/might/may/could + be (+ V-ing);

past probabality:

-Must have/might have/may have/could have + past participle (+ V-ing);

and their negative forms

Thanks in advance

Regards,

Alexander

Am I correct in understanding that with bueno/malo, putting it before the noun creates more emphasis?

Like " mi padre es un hombre bueno." -My father is a good man.

"Mi padre es un buen hombre." -My father is a [really] good man.

Hola,

¿Qué es la diferencia de significado entre "Alguien no tiene que hacer algo" y "Alguien no tiene por qué hacer algo"? Y ¿por qué no se use "por que", sino "por qué" con el acento?

Gracias!  (I hope that all made sense!) 

Is it grammatically acceptable to use 'otra vez' instead of this expression?

e.g. Yo trabajo otra vez en esa tienda.

On the quiz, there was the statement "El hecho de que yo quiera ir al concierto contigo no nos hace pareja." I thought hechos (facts) were expressed in the indicative? 

what does afueras de la ciudad mean? 

Hola todos

I have been told that it is very common to use 'quedar' instead of 'estar' to indicate where a place is, for instance 'Mi casa queda cerca del parque.'

I have read quedar used in this way, and have seen it in some dictionaries. However, I don't think I've ever heard anyone say it to me, which is odd as I must have used sentences where it might come up hundreds of times on the many occasions I've been navigating neighbourhoods during visits to Spain. Could it be more common in Latin American Spanish?

Can you clarify?

Saludos