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5,658 questions • 9,078 answers • 887,133 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,658 questions • 9,078 answers • 887,133 learners
My answer was "está"The correct answer was "hace"
In the above question, I think both answers should be considered correct:está (in this case frío is an adjective)and hace (in this case frío would be a noun)
Why am I wrong?
Is it because despierta is being used as an adjective here? Thank you
In the examples of "¿Quién prepara la fiesta a Sofía?" and "Nosotros les preparamos la cena a nuestros invitados."
Why use 'a' instead of 'para' (for) or 'por' (on behalf of)?
Ricky
¡Hola!
Could you please provide me with Spanish equivalents for modal structures of probabality:
-Must/might/may/could + be (+ V-ing);
past probabality:
-Must have/might have/may have/could have + past participle (+ V-ing);
and their negative forms
Thanks in advance
Regards,
Alexander
If it is a polite request, why use the tú form rather than the usted form?
Sorry, Im a little confussed.
Before I attempt to answer this, isn't patience an adjective (modifying Victor, the noun). Or is it referring to "few patients (pacientes)- not little patience" as a quantity?
In otherwords, I believe paciencia is an adjective (quality - not quantity), and I think the poco would be a modifier and not be changed. It would stay poco. Right?
But if the word was patients (pacientes- quantitiy of patients), then the poco would change to poca, because paciente is a feminine noun.
Me gusta el vídeo. La narradora habló con mucha claridad. Gracias.
¿En este ejemplo por qué la forma segunda persona singular del verbo dar se usa para el imperativo?
Here is my question in English, in case my question in Spanish is incorrect or just too awkward:
In this example, why is the 2nd person singular form of the verb, dar, used for the imperative?
Why is cambiar used with the preposition de and sometimes without? Is there any difference between the two ways of using cambiar?
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