por v. para 3Thank you Silvia,
In "La vida de Eva (B1)" gapfill test we have:
"Eva siempre ha sido una persona que nunca toma decisiones por dinero o por conveniencia. Su familia la quiere mucho y, para ser sinceros, ha hecho muchos sacrificios ______ sus hijos."
The hint for the gap is:
"she has made many sacrifices for her children."
the accepted answer is "por"; "para" is marked wrong.
The explanation given for this is:
"Lesson: Using por (not para) to express the originating cause or reason"
Could you please help me to see
why "for" is interpreted here as indicating the "cause" and not the "recipient"?
I put 'en mitad de' and was marked wrong. According to your lesson on that topic they are sinónimos.
Please clarify
Gracias
When do you and when you don't use el/la/los/las?
I'm totally confused by this and always end up making the wrong choice.
Trick questions like this one don't help and no one is going to put that adjective in front of axe in Spanish. Smh. I like this web site but the way you guys format questions is really annoying at times. The questions should reflect how a native is MOST LIKELY to say something, not "well let's mess with these people trying to learn a language and confuse them at the same time."
Thank you Silvia,
In "La vida de Eva (B1)" gapfill test we have:
"Eva siempre ha sido una persona que nunca toma decisiones por dinero o por conveniencia. Su familia la quiere mucho y, para ser sinceros, ha hecho muchos sacrificios ______ sus hijos."
The hint for the gap is:
"she has made many sacrifices for her children."
the accepted answer is "por"; "para" is marked wrong.
The explanation given for this is:
"Lesson: Using por (not para) to express the originating cause or reason"
Could you please help me to see
why "for" is interpreted here as indicating the "cause" and not the "recipient"?
A couple of quizzes ago i was marked wrong for putting the object pronouns in front of the verbal structure. Unfortunately I can't get back to that quiz now to check, but I was sure they could go either before the whole verbal structure of be added onto the gerund/infinitive. The correction on my answer was to put the pronouns at the end of the infinitive/gerund.
Can you explain to me when to use hace, when to use hay?
Thank u so much
The directions say with verbs that imply movement we can use all the forms, but the correct answer to the question was "adónde" and "dónde". Seems the directions should say, with verbs that imply movement we can use either accented form.
Surely both versions are about "how" the speaker feels:
Cada vez que veo esa película siento escalofríos. - Every time I see that movie it gives me the shivers. (lit: I feel the shivers)
versus: Rafael se siente mareado. ¡Trae un vaso de agua! - -Rafael is feeling dizzy. Bring a glass of water!
There must be a better way to determine which version to use, no?
Or is it that with sentir it's when an external force is affecting the speaker and with sentirse it's a matter of personal, internal sensation/emotion. It seems to be a very fine line of definition . . .
Which one is correct:
Tres es más que dos.
Tres es más de dos.
You said the answer was supé and not supe. I have been unable to find an example in your lesson that uses the accent mark. What am I missing here and where can I find an example of supe with the accent mark along with an explanation_
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