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5,814 questions • 9,521 answers • 952,241 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,814 questions • 9,521 answers • 952,241 learners
for the last part of the notes, it says deber conjugated in indefinitivo does not mean the same thing. Am I right to say that this structure is only for present tense of saying something should have been done? how do we say such meaning in past tense? something should had been done?
In your example above:
should this: I don't find my keys!
be "I can't find my keys"?? (I don't find my keys sounds awkward)
Dave
Is there a way to make flashcards and add these to notebooks? Thank you so much for everything. I love this site.
Hi Inma,
I just worked out the answer - it is the imperative of Ser (Sé). So obvious!
Many thanks
John
Cuantos animales únicos son de Paraguay? Hay unos animales muy interesante o especial? Cuantos tipos de plantas son únicos a Paraguay?
Why is this wrong: Mi abuela le entretiene mucho hacer punto?
¿Usas las botas?
No,no --- uso.
Group of answer choicesseleslasloCan you guys give us a full breakdown of what things (verbs) use the third person "they did this for me" but it's translated in English as "I had done." ?? It's very confusing and it seems kinda random what things you can use this with or not. The only reason I even knew that this structure existed is because I have some Mexican family members who use this structure but in English. For instance they might they "they're fixing the car right now." But they mean they're having the car fixed for them right now.
In some lessons you guys mention personal care "being done for oneself" but it's still first person, like cutting hair, doing nails. I'm just confused as to when it's ok to use third person or not.
Please explain on what basis cuándo is correct here and not cuando. This looks to me like a perfectly straightforward statement of fact. No one is asking a question. In fact, this sentence is an answer to a question such as, "When will you see him again?"
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