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5,720 questions • 9,222 answers • 908,151 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,720 questions • 9,222 answers • 908,151 learners
Hello.
I wonder why we used the preterito perfecto de sujuntivo in this sentence, instead of the presente de sujuntivo. Aside from the given hint to use the said verb, can you explain why? Thank you.
A couple of quizzes ago i was marked wrong for putting the object pronouns in front of the verbal structure. Unfortunately I can't get back to that quiz now to check, but I was sure they could go either before the whole verbal structure of be added onto the gerund/infinitive. The correction on my answer was to put the pronouns at the end of the infinitive/gerund.
Why would you say soy un cantautor? I thought you were not supposed to use an indefinite article when saying what occupation you have?
This rule does not work with amable. If you do an exercise on superlatives with a question on "amable" before you read the lesson on -co, -go, -ble, and -z endings you will make a mistake. Perhaps this lesson should should point out that -ble endings are an exception.
Of course I will always remember the rule now after spending some time trying to discover why "amablísimos" was wrong.
According to the Cervantes Institute "no porque" must be followed by the subjunctive. Not sure where you guys get that you can use indicative.
For the question:
¡________ me has traído! ¡Qué lugar más espectacular!
The English translation that is given is:
Where have you brought me! What an amazing place!
It seems that the English is a bit ambiguous because it is phrased as a question but there is an exclamation mark rather than a questions so I don't know whether the original question in Spanish is intended to be a statement or a question.
Dear Kwiziq,
In virtually all of the dictations I have completed, I have found that it is quite difficult to discern when a sentence ends based on the speakers voice. This is to say, the speaker lowers his/her voice in a way that implies the end of a sentence, but when the answer is shown it becomes apparent to me that the lowering of the speaker's voice was actually meant to convey a pause. Is this the natural way hispanohablantes speak --- whether from Spain or Central/South America? Of course, as recommended, I do listen to the dictation before attempting to write it out, but I cannot memorize where sentences end vs. when there is a pause in the speaker's speech. Consequently, I'm constantly guessing at when the sentence ends. I am a native English speaker and typically, when translating spoken English to written form, lowering of the voice signifies a period --- not a pause (comma). As such, I often find it confusing (indeed, quite frustrating) to differentiate pauses from ends of sentences in the Kwiziq dictation exercises.
Pati Inez Ecuamiga
Could algunos be used instead of unos? And also could '¡Qué espectacular!' Be used instead of 'Era espectacular'?
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