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Let me take a look at that...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,991 questions • 9,794 answers • 1,007,973 learners
Hace mucho frío en Canadá.
I don't understand why " mucho" is used here.
Too often I have found the “hints” to be problematic in that I am thrown off by them. For example, in this lesson one hint was “Lit: "At 2 I have lunch with dehydrated foods" lunch = almuerzo, foods = alimentos." Assuming “Lit” means “literally”, the literal translation should have been “A las dos tengo almuerzo con alimentos deshidratados” NOT “tomo” or “como”. I do know that "tomar" is used when referring to food, but the so-called "hint" threw me off on this one!
Pat Ecuamiga
Surely both versions are about "how" the speaker feels:
Cada vez que veo esa película siento escalofríos. - Every time I see that movie it gives me the shivers. (lit: I feel the shivers)
versus: Rafael se siente mareado. ¡Trae un vaso de agua! - -Rafael is feeling dizzy. Bring a glass of water!
There must be a better way to determine which version to use, no?
Or is it that with sentir it's when an external force is affecting the speaker and with sentirse it's a matter of personal, internal sensation/emotion. It seems to be a very fine line of definition . . .
Tu tienes should be correct as it refers to you. Tiene refers to he/she
I reported this as an issue, and perhaps should have brought it up here instead. For one of the quizzes, the answer is
A veces __me olvido de__ que llevamos casados 20 años. (Sometimes I forget that we've been married for 20 years.)
I noticed that the verb *olvidar* is being used intransitively and that, even though the "accidental se" is being used, that olvido is not in the third person. (It's not in the preterite / no accent on the o). I'm having trouble finding an example of this on the lesson page.
Thanks!
I never heard a sentence with yendo till now. Could you make a list of different sentences in relation to the pronouns?
How would the the Lawless Spanish staff recommend that learners practice conjugations?
Hiya,
I used ‘como imaginarías’ to translate ‘as you may imagine’. I had my English conditional head on. Would that be acceptable and understandable?
Many thanks,
Dan
The following two sentences use the indirect pronoun 'le' before the verb. Why is 'le' necessary in these cases? Is it considered incorrect if it's removed? Examples with and without 'le' are below.
1. Tú les das vino a mis abuelos.
2. Ella le muestra un sombrero nuevo al hombre.
I've heard native speakers omitting 'le' in similar sentence constructions, but I'm unsure if it's correct to do so or not.
1. Tú das vino a mis abuelos.
2. Ella muestra un sombrero nuevo al hombre.
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