Why is "pasar" shown to mean "have" when English speakers just as often say "to spend?" Wouldn't it be truer to the Spanish to say it means "to spend?" Also, that will help me learn the actual meaning of "pasar." To say it means "have" I would think may sow some confusion.
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I think your wish for “truer” translations won’t actually benefit you because translation and understanding just don’t happen that way. I suspect that like me you love words and language, but what you are suggesting isn’t really possible when you learn a language through that language.
I suggest that you do the opposite. Accept the translation as it is given simply because it is what people will understand, and then go exploring the actual meanings of the verbs, nouns, adjectives etc, and enjoy the way that language can be so creative.
If you look up pasar in a good dictionary [I recommend that you add a link from your browser to “WordReference” Spanish-English Dictionary] you won’t find “have” as a meaning for pasar. That said pasar does mean “have” in many expressions, not least in a special construction “pasárselo bien” which is widely used.
In the sentence to which you are referring, “y pasar unos días maravillosos,” it is perfectly good English to translate it as “have a few wonderful days.” I think to substitute “spend” or “pass” for “have” would be rather formal, or even outdated. However the final sentence of the lesson “para pasar un verano increíble ” is translated as “spend.” Why? Because it is a better translation than “have” or “pass.”
I hope that helps. Saludos
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