"When I was young, I would eat sugar": comía or comería?In English, we often express the imperfect tense (a past habitual action) using the modal "would":
When I was young, I would eat sugar.
I can't find examples of the Spanish equivalent:
Cuando era joven, comería azúcar.
But just using the Spanish imperfect seems like it might be wrong:
Cuando era joven, comía azúcar.
... seems to translate literally as "When I was young, I was eating sugar", which doesn't seem to clarify that it was a habitual action rather than a one-time thing.
So, how would you say "When I was young, I would eat sugar" in Spanish?
In English, we often express the imperfect tense (a past habitual action) using the modal "would":
When I was young, I would eat sugar.
I can't find examples of the Spanish equivalent:
Cuando era joven, comería azúcar.
But just using the Spanish imperfect seems like it might be wrong:
Cuando era joven, comía azúcar.
... seems to translate literally as "When I was young, I was eating sugar", which doesn't seem to clarify that it was a habitual action rather than a one-time thing.
So, how would you say "When I was young, I would eat sugar" in Spanish?
In the example, the direct object was being called for. Why use the "le" form, then?
Why do we use the subjunctive here when something is unknown, but when we use 'aunque' it is the other way around? By that, I mean that we only use the subjunctive when the information is shared and the indicative is used to introduce new information.
On another course, an example conversation between novio and novia goes: “usted sabe que lo amo. Vayamos al cine, hay una película nueva que quiero que veamos. Me muero por que usted la vea”. It was partly my frustration that there was no explanation of the use of usted here that led me to look for another course. Can anyone here explain this to me? Is this a regional peculiarity? Maybe Colombia? Thanks.
I thought the original post cut off some of the contents, ergo the 2nd post, which is redundant (somewhat in keeping with the theme of this post
In this exercise, what exactly is the reason to prefer "libros buenos" rather than "buenos libros"?
Hello,
In the lesson el profesor pronounces 'quiere' "yiere", is this normal for European Spanish? Normally I expect a fairly strong "q" sound?
Thanks
Why does the speaker sound like he is making some kind of extra sound before saying the first word "estoy"? I listed to it over and over and it sounds so strange to me - like a "y" or "e" sound before he says "estoy". Am I missing or misunderstanding something? Thanks!
Why is 'buena' used to describe the coffee as good? 'El café' is masculine so I don't understand why it wouldn't be 'El café colombiano...es muy bueno.'
Thanks in advance!
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