Still confused Luis y yo no hemos roto ________ nos hemos dado un tiempo para pensar.Luis and I haven't broken up but we gave each other some time to think.
I put "pero" because this seems like new information as much as a substitution, or at least it's a very complex substitution.
BUT, one of your example sentences for "pero" is, roughly, "I can't go out tonight, but I'll go out tomorrow." In one of your earlier replies, you give this example: "Ella no puede venir hoy sino mañana. (substituting)S he can't come today but tomorrow"
I don't understand why these two seemingly interchangeable examples are given first as an example for "pero" in the main text and then as an example for "sino" in the comments.
This seems much more like a substitution, no?
Doing the quiz "To like" in Spanish: gustar, I get the above error and a reference to a French quiz. I don't get my results
Puedo decir, “para conocer a uno de mis actores preferidos”, también?
Arreglándose para la fiesta, alguien llamó a la puerta.
While getting ready for the party, someone knocked on the door.
In English I believe this is incorrect. The gerund refers to the subject in the other sentence, so this sounds as if whoever knocked on the door was also getting ready for the party.
In Spanish if it is correct - how do we know it refers to ella? Based on context?
The bank WOULD lend, therefore should this not be conditional eg El banco te PRESTARÍA más dinero?
Luis and I haven't broken up but we gave each other some time to think.
I put "pero" because this seems like new information as much as a substitution, or at least it's a very complex substitution.
BUT, one of your example sentences for "pero" is, roughly, "I can't go out tonight, but I'll go out tomorrow." In one of your earlier replies, you give this example: "Ella no puede venir hoy sino mañana. (substituting)S he can't come today but tomorrow"
I don't understand why these two seemingly interchangeable examples are given first as an example for "pero" in the main text and then as an example for "sino" in the comments.
This seems much more like a substitution, no?
Is it possible to tell whether something is more or less probable without a context?
e.g the test question which translates as ' write down the address in case you forget'
I don't understand why "Ya había" + participle is not a correct answer in both cases. Looking at the examples it seems it is a possible answer.
Could I say "era" instead of "fue" as it is a part of description?
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