Spanish language Q&A Forum

In the sentence:

La bruja le maldice todos los años. (The witch curses him every year)

I expected it to read "lo maldice" to say "to curse him" where "him" would be the direct object. Why is it le?

Hi!

I think if the English was restructured for a few of the examples, the distinction between haber/tener would be clearer. Essentially the past participle would be moved towards the end of the sentence while placing the object after have/has.

For example: You have two rooms painted. Marta and I have a trip to Egypt planned.

Thanks!

Hi!

Is there also a short form for "3 elevado a 2 igual a 9"? Would "3 a 2 son 9" work? (and is that even the correct translation of "to the whatever power"?)

Also, can I drop the "por" when variables are involved? Like "2 por x" -> "2 x"? 

Hola, 

Update - I just found the lesson on this.  When to use the perfect tense versus the simple past (Perfecto vs Indefinido)

I live in the US and just switched to Latin American Spanish, since it is more likely Spanish speakers I meet will speak this way.  I am curious if El Pretérito Perfecto is used in LatAm Spanish when not talking about experiences.  

Why does changing g to j preserve the infinitive pronunciation?

Hello,

Thank you very much for this lesson !