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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,944 questions • 9,714 answers • 987,666 learners
Hi there........so, am I getting this right: these two examples are in pret indefinido because they have an ASSUMED timeframe in the speakers' mind?Nosotros estuvimos hablando con los periodistas.Ellos estuvieron arreglando el grifo de la cocina.
Is "ll" pronounced "ya?"
the words "such as" in the text do not appear in the Spanish translation
Hello, in this sentence
"Mi madre usa el teléfono móvil para hacer llamadas o mandar mensajes."
During the challenge it appeared that both "hacer llamadas" and "mandar mensajes" would need their own "para", due to the way in which the sentence was broken up. I can see now in the full text that "in order to" applies to the sentence "make calls or send mesages" but in the challenge I added a "para" for each sentence.
Is it just me or could this be tidied up?
Thanks
It seems I have considerable confusion over when to use a definite/indefinite article before a noun. I know it is needed when using gustar (e.g., me gusta el chocolate), but I have confusion in other contexts. For example, for the prompt "you need to have strong legs", I wrote necesitas tener las piernas fuertes, but the correct answer was "necesitas tener piernas fuertes" --- without the article. What's the rule on this?
My other confusion appears to be with the use of possessives. The prompt was "I'm going to exercise my muscles". I wrote voy a ejercitar los músculos but the correct answer was "voy a ejercitar mis músculos". It seems I'm confusing the rule of not using the possessive adjective as is required in such phrases as "My head is hurting" --- "Me duelo la cabeza" , or "I raise my hand" -- "Me levanto la mano". Please help me to know the difference for when I can (have) to use the possessive adjective versus when it is not used.
Thank you and I look forward to some clarity (finally) on these two issues.
Regards,
Pati Ecuamiga
The sentence is We are going to have dinner etc.... But the infinitive verb used is salir which means to leave. Why is the verb tener not used as this doesn't make sense to me
In the sentence "Al calentar la leche me quemé" I feel like in English we would use a comma between 'leche' and 'me' to separate the two clauses. Is this not the case in Spanish? (I might have it wrong in English.)
I don't see how you know from the 'in case you forget' sentence whether it is likely or not. Surely it depends on whom you are talking to?
e.g. my daughter, not likely to forget; my husband, very likely to forget. How can I tell from the question?
Sending love, prayers and positive thoughts to all in Kwiziq land.
To all the teachers- thank you for continuing to be there for us on our language journeys. I hope you're all healthy and safe.
Clara :)
Like Alan, I was puzzled by the use of the subjunctive in some of your examples, particularly this one:
"Coge un par de plátanos, los que estén más maduros" - because to me it seemed that the speaker had indeed noticed that some of the bananas were riper than others. Maybe it makes sense, though, if s/he had not yet seen them - but in this latter case s/he would probably have said: "Coge un par de plátanos, preferentemente dos que estén más maduros" - [is that correct?]
I can understand the use of the subjunctive when it is referring to the future - e.g., your sentence-example which begins: Quienes lleguen… [because it is not yet known who will reach the top first].
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