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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,945 questions • 9,714 answers • 987,724 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,945 questions • 9,714 answers • 987,724 learners
Ah, me encantaba jugar este juego cuando era una niña!
Gracias por este ejercicio excelente Shui. :)
However e > i verbs are different as they keep the e > i change all they way through their conjugation in El Presente de Subjuntivo.
Hi there........so, am I getting this right: these two examples are in pret indefinido because they have an ASSUMED timeframe in the speakers' mind?Nosotros estuvimos hablando con los periodistas.Ellos estuvieron arreglando el grifo de la cocina.
Sending love, prayers and positive thoughts to all in Kwiziq land.
To all the teachers- thank you for continuing to be there for us on our language journeys. I hope you're all healthy and safe.
Clara :)
Is "ll" pronounced "ya?"
the words "such as" in the text do not appear in the Spanish translation
Hello, in this sentence
"Mi madre usa el teléfono móvil para hacer llamadas o mandar mensajes."
During the challenge it appeared that both "hacer llamadas" and "mandar mensajes" would need their own "para", due to the way in which the sentence was broken up. I can see now in the full text that "in order to" applies to the sentence "make calls or send mesages" but in the challenge I added a "para" for each sentence.
Is it just me or could this be tidied up?
Thanks
It seems I have considerable confusion over when to use a definite/indefinite article before a noun. I know it is needed when using gustar (e.g., me gusta el chocolate), but I have confusion in other contexts. For example, for the prompt "you need to have strong legs", I wrote necesitas tener las piernas fuertes, but the correct answer was "necesitas tener piernas fuertes" --- without the article. What's the rule on this?
My other confusion appears to be with the use of possessives. The prompt was "I'm going to exercise my muscles". I wrote voy a ejercitar los músculos but the correct answer was "voy a ejercitar mis músculos". It seems I'm confusing the rule of not using the possessive adjective as is required in such phrases as "My head is hurting" --- "Me duelo la cabeza" , or "I raise my hand" -- "Me levanto la mano". Please help me to know the difference for when I can (have) to use the possessive adjective versus when it is not used.
Thank you and I look forward to some clarity (finally) on these two issues.
Regards,
Pati Ecuamiga
The sentence is We are going to have dinner etc.... But the infinitive verb used is salir which means to leave. Why is the verb tener not used as this doesn't make sense to me
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