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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,990 questions • 9,792 answers • 1,007,144 learners
You should probably add this to the brainmap - I could only locate this by manually searching through the library
Hola,
Would the following be an example of objection using the conditional? It is in response to a character revealing what she has done.
Tú no tendrías que decir nada. No tendrías que haberle dado la pistola.
How would you translate this? Here is my attempt:
You didn't have to say anything. You didn't have to give her the gun/pistol.
Why is it "soy feliz" and not "estoy"?
In the example: Estamos buscando una farmacia para comprar paracetamol.We are looking for a chemist to buy some paracetamol.Is a chemist a pharmacy or a pharmacist?
I'm trying to figure out if you need the personal a if it is just a particular person and not if it is the name of a person's job. So here, if chemist is a pharmacist, I don't use a personal a because it isn't a specific person.
OR.
If the personal a is for any person and here chemist is a pharmacy, not a pharmacist.
Thanks!
Tara
Shouldn't this translate to "¿Queréis que Juan recitar un poema?"? However, in a kwiz, "¿Queréis que Juan recite un poema?", was the correct answer. But 'to recite' is in the infinitive.
This isn't a question, rather a big "thank you" for the explanation of how to work out if a word is of Greek origin. Idioma and Sistema always have me struggling to remember whether they're masculine or feminine. This tip will change everything! Thanks!
Is there are reason these sentences are in the pretérito perfecto:
La obra de teatro nos ha aburrido mucho
Me ha encantado tu actuación
The English translations aren't in the perfect. I could imagine saying "the play has bored us" and that carrying a somewhat different meaning than "the play bored us". Similarly, "I have loved your performance" might be something one would say to a regular company member who is leaving after 6 months in a role, while "I loved your performance" might be said to some immediately after seeing their show for the first time (in English). I am trying to understand the nuances of why you might use the perfect tense in Spanish when it seems like the indefinite tense would work as well (and in English would mean something different).
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