Spanish language Q&A Forum

My question from yesterday was poorly worded.  One sees "algo que" with most verbs as in "Tiene algo que declarar/hacer" but one sees "algo de" or "algo para" with "Tiene algo de comer/beber?" or "Tiene algo para comer/beber?" Most verbs seem to take "algo que" in translators when there is an infinitive afterward and certainly when there is a conjugated verb after "algo." Are "algo de comer/beber" and "algo para comer/beber" just idioms or set phrases?  If not, when does one use "algo que" vs "algo de " (which can also mean some or a bit of) and "algo para"?

When is tiempo used?

In the test, we are asked to translate 'Also, Ken Follet used it (to write his literary works)'. At first, I translated it as 'Ken Follet la usa', but then I noticed I was being specifically asked to construct a sentence using 'se'. Assuming a passive sentence was required, I put 'Además, se usó por Ken Follet', but was corrected with 'Además, Ken Follet la usó'. Surely, there is something not quite right here?

This test question confused me.  I thought that a number under 200 used "unos" but the test answer says it should be unas tres horas.

The journey lasts about three hours. : El viaje dura ___ horas.

It appears that a space is missing in the bullet point: "in the subordinate sentence after quererque we use El Imperfecto Subjuntivo." 

It looks like a space may be needed in "quererque" to divide this into two words: "querer" and "que." Or is there a circumstance in which it would be correct to combine these? 

Consejo(s) is used twice in the exercise. At first, the impression is that this is a singular word (consejo) in Spanish where it would be plural in English (tips). But later at the end it used in the plural (consejos) for the plural. This seems confusing to me.

Creo que la mujer no dice bien el "ir" de Irlanda.

Hello, this lesson states that "Notice how for these verbs, -i- becomes -y- in all forms."

But I think that it is more correct to say that "a Y is added to the stem in all forms".  Huir is an IR verb, so it's stem is HU, you aren't replacing an I.

Have I understood the lesson correctly?

¿Por qué hay tilde en “ ésa”? 

“ésa sería mi abuela Carmen sin duda.”