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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,119 questions • 10,022 answers • 1,054,904 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,119 questions • 10,022 answers • 1,054,904 learners
I'm confused by the English translation: (I didn't have any chewing gum in my pocket.) for No llevaba ningún chicle en el bosillo.
Question: Why is this not "No tenía ningún ...?
The translation I remember of llevar from an earlier lesson is to take.
Am I wrong here? Please clarify.
Pati E.
In this example, "No me gusta nada ir de compras" why the preposition DE after the word NADA was omitted?
In the above example the English translation refers to “she”, but am I correct, that there is nothing in the spanish
sentence that refers to a “she”? In fact, wouldn’t “le” normally default to the masculine?
Te peinas,peinarte which is correct?
Se Miran, mirarse which is correct?
If both are right, can we use any one of this?
I am having the exact same problem on the quiz/test item for this lesson as Linda is having. The percentage does not rise above 93.7.
Is "Le" at the beginning necessary or do I need it only for emphasis?
There is another lesson about using the pretérito perfecto after esperar to indicate a completed action in the future. Is there any difference in sentence construction between these two cases or would intent have to be discerned entirely from context?
Ella no cree que vosotros ________ eso por ella.She doesn't believe you did that for her.
The correct answer is "Ella no cree que vosotros hiciereis eso por ella." I understand this is the future simple subjunctive. Is the translation wrong? i.e. should it be, 'She doesn't think you will do that for her?'
I just wrote sonriais in a blank on a test and it marked my answer "almost right", and gave the right answer as "sonriáis".
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