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6,084 questions • 9,964 answers • 1,040,294 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,084 questions • 9,964 answers • 1,040,294 learners
hello what does this mean
'(HINT: Choose the correct tense for European Spanish (not Latin American))'
i want to learn latin american spanish
Also: why does it say i am A0 when A2 is quite easy for me
Some verbs in the preterite indefinido have tildes and some don't. Is there a rule for when they are used or not used, as i'm finding it difficult to remember when to use them?
Hi, translators are saying it should be:
Qué día tan maravilloso
but
Qué terrible accidente
Can you explain the different placement of the adjective in these examples please? And why "qué accidente tan terrible" doesnt' seem to be an option?
Thanks,
Jenny
Hola
I am having a hard time learning all the past tenses and when to use what. Does anyone have a good advise on how to make it less complicated?
Josefine :)
Tu novia y tú habéis estado comprometidos hasta este año.Your girlfriend and you have been engaged until this year.
The meaning is unclear to me — are they no longer engaged?
Then, in my opinion, the English should be:
..Your girlfriend and you.were engaged until this year, not have been. But maybe I do not understand what is being expressed in Spanish. In any case, the English sentence is not clear.
Hi Inma
Thanks for your quick response.
By extension can I also combine nunca and tampoco in the same sentence as shown below
Ella no pudo nunca entender tampoco la pregunta.
Ella no pudo entender nunca tampoco la pregunta.
Ella no pudo entender nunca la pregunta tampoco.
Ella nunca pudo entender la pregunta tampoco.
One of the quik quiz questions had "Ella nunca...". The rules and your examples seem to say that "nunca" has to be at the very beginning of the sentence yet "Ella nunca..." was given as a valid answer. May I suggest that you add in an example to make that point clear? Thanks
Hello,
Re: Page: https://progress.lawlessspanish.com/my-languages/spanish/exercises/judge/183/422794?response=53775&page=11
The text reads: There are only advantages!
The best answer is :¡sólo hay ventajas!
You could also say:¡Solo hay ventajas!
Or also:¡Solo hay beneficios!
Why no accents on the other two "solo"s?
Nicole
I thought the past participle of leer is leído. But the above example uses leídas. I have no knowledge of conjugating past participles. Please explain the usage. Thanks
In the sample question "Cuando vuelva Carlos, dile que quiero hablar con él." why is "quiero" not in the subjunctive tense? Didn't we learn in a different lesson than if a verb comes after 'que' that switches subject that it should be subjunctive?
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