Spanish language Q&A Forum

¿Porque se dice ambos, el presente perfecto (en otros textos) y el pretérito perfecto? Esto me confunde  mucho... ¡Muchas gracias!

Is there ONE lesson which talks about cuál vs qué. I thought there was.... but..... I can't find it!

Based on the answer choices, shouldn't the mini-quiz questions "Her baby doesn't eat any fruit..."  read "My baby doesn't..."?

Hola, 

Why is the personal 'a' not used in 'conocemos gente'? Would 'conocemos a la gente' be an acceptable answer here?

Thanks,

Benhur

Coma todo por favor
it's conjugated to the imperativo 

The example in this lesson uses the imperfective. Are there also circumstances in which the pretérito would be appropriate to talk about ownership?

In the question"Pablo doesn't like surprise parties" isn't "surprise" an adjective and so the translation would be "Pablo no le gustan las fiestas sorpresas (in the plural).   I know this is not related to the lesson but ...

I thought long and hard before answering this onr.  Although it fits the patter nor using sino que, if is a  correctionof  the first statement, the second statement is a contrast:  something practical rather than something material.  It is ambiguous depending on the circumstances and "pero" can be used following both positive and negative first statements.