Spanish language Q&A Forum

The exceptions are both words that describe places of origin.  Is this a pattern or are these two examples that just happened to be place names.  I can see three possibilities:

1) When you have a place of origin adjective (from Spain, from Analusia) you always use gendered plural endings.

2) When you use gendered plural endings for adjectives ending in z or l you always use gendered plural endings

3) It's just a coincidence in the examples and neither 1 or 2 is a pattern.

Which one of these cases is closest to being correct?

El padre le da la receta a la señorita. Senorita was the indirect object noun, why add to “le” in front of the da？And,：Qué le hace el médico al enfermo? Enfermo was also the indirect object noun, why add to “le”?

And, ：Le receta el médico al enfermo unas pastillas? Enfermo was also the indirect object noun, why add to “le”?

So this lesson explains that imperfecto can be thought of as currently happening, while the indefinito is something that happened in the past. But then in the lesson that compares the two with "time markers" it says the opposite. Imperfect is meant to indicate something "used to" happen. Seems like a contradiction. Actually the more I try to understand this topic the more it seems like the type of thing I should just try to memorize first, and then try to wrap my head around it much later. 

This page is missing an accent on the "vosotros" ending for -ir verbs:

https://progress.lawlessspanish.com/my-languages/spanish/glossary/42

Should increíble also be on this list?