Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,989 questions • 9,792 answers • 1,006,013 learners
Let me take a look at that...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,989 questions • 9,792 answers • 1,006,013 learners
This lesson has no explanation as to when and why to use this tense .
The lesson on pluscamperfecto is also poor.
As a result I am frustrated.
Examples alone are not sufficient.
Lo que ha bebido Juan
La de vino que ha bebido Juan
Cuánto ha bebido Juan
Are "antes de que" and "antes que" fully interchangeable? Does one sound better than the other or is used more in one or another situation? (It could help to say this explicitly.)
Also, you run through the various past/present/future possibilities of "después de que" noting where the subjunctive or indicative is used. You don't give as many cases for "antes de que". Is it correct to infer that regardless of whether we are referring to a past, present or future event, "antes de que" must always be followed by the subjunctive. (Might help to say so explicitly if this is the case.)
I still don't get email notifications when new answers are posted.
Really enjoyed this!
Hello, thanks for this excellent tool for learning Spanish!
My question is about the use of pero in a second sentence. Should this be explained as a second clause rather than a second sentence since the examples use one sentence?
No entiendo porque se dice "al que" y no "que".
How common is the second form of the imperfect subjunctive in everyday language? I.E. The conjugation that has 'iese' for ER/IR verbs and 'ase' for AR verbs. Do native speakers favor one over the other?
Hola Inma,
I am a bit confused as to why Le can be used as a direct object pronoun. Is this only possible in this context or are there other situations where this is correct? Is there maybe already a lesson on this topic?
Thanks,
Deborah
The exceptions are both words that describe places of origin. Is this a pattern or are these two examples that just happened to be place names. I can see three possibilities:
1) When you have a place of origin adjective (from Spain, from Analusia) you always use gendered plural endings.
2) When you use gendered plural endings for adjectives ending in z or l you always use gendered plural endings
3) It's just a coincidence in the examples and neither 1 or 2 is a pattern.
Which one of these cases is closest to being correct?
Is "suficiente" known more for "enough of" just like adequate and is bastante more known for "plenty" like enough, but more than just enough? I saw a native say suficiente go on about how they use suficiente=enough and bastante=plenty. I believe you can use suficiente before and after the noun, although with bastante is it only before the noun?
Find your Spanish level for FREE
And get your personalised Study Plan to improve it
Find your Spanish level