Spanish language Q&A Forum

On my latest quiz, I was asked to write “Alicia has as much joy as Carmen.” I chose “Alicia tiene tanta alegría como Carmen”, because I understood  “tanta” means “as much/as many…as”. My answer was wrong. The correct answer is “Alicia tiene tan alegría como Carmen”. I thought “tan” here meant ”as…as”. Did I misunderstand something from the tan/tanta mini-lessons?

Hola Inma,

I am a bit confused as to why Le can be used as a direct object pronoun. Is this only possible in this context or are there other situations where this is correct? Is there maybe already a lesson on this topic?

Thanks,

Deborah

So this lesson explains that imperfecto can be thought of as currently happening, while the indefinito is something that happened in the past. But then in the lesson that compares the two with "time markers" it says the opposite. Imperfect is meant to indicate something "used to" happen. Seems like a contradiction. Actually the more I try to understand this topic the more it seems like the type of thing I should just try to memorize first, and then try to wrap my head around it much later. 

I thought general experiences were talked about in the Imperfect.  The time markers given in this lesson match up with https://progress.lawlessspanish.com/learn/theme/746448.

And also this lesson seems to indicate using the Imperfect:

Using the imperfect tense in Spanish to express habits or repeated actions in the past (El Pretérito Imperfecto)

A ella le molestaba que nosotras ________ con su novio.It bothered her that we had spoken to her boyfriend.HINT: Conjugate "hablar" in El Pretérito Pluscuamperfecto de SubjuntivoHi all, In the above phrase... There is nothing hypothetical. It's a fact that the girl was upset that some people spoke to her boyfriend.. It should be indicative in my opinion... Pls help