In the sentence "Therefore, time should be invested...", I answered "Por lo tanto, se debería invertir el tiempo" while the given answer is "Por lo tanto, se debe invertir el tiempo". Since the English sentence shows 'should', shouldn't 'se deberia' be more appropriate than 'se bede' which would translate to 'must' rather than 'should'?

Gracias,

Benhur

Asked 4 years ago

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Garry M.B1Kwiziq Q&A regular contributor

Una gran lección pero tengo preguntas . . .

With: "Both rivers, the Amazon and the Orinoco, and their respective basins", why does Amazon get pluralized to "Amazonas"? I've seen that the masculine is "el Amazonas" and the feminine is "la Amazona". Why is that, please? I'm wondering about the use of "el río Amazonas" versus "la selva Amazona" and "la selva Amazonica".

How does "se nos" change the meaning of "Uno de esos ríos que enseguida viene a la mente" -v- "Uno de esos ríos que enseguida se nos viene a la mente".

And the use of "ello" . . . does "ello" not mean "it" or "that"? Is the use of "ello" as "this" merely the uneducated English useage where "this" and "that" and their appropriate relationships to time and place become misused? : "An example of that is Caño Cristales, a natural sanctuary."

And why the use of the future tense "existirán en otros lugares del mundo"?

Asked 2 years ago

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Robert L.B2Kwiziq community member

Nunca after the subject

One of the quik quiz questions had "Ella nunca...". The rules and your examples seem to say that "nunca" has to be at the very beginning of the sentence yet "Ella nunca..." was given as a valid answer. May I suggest that you add in an example to make that point clear? Thanks

Asked 5 years ago

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