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Thinking...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,084 questions • 9,963 answers • 1,040,147 learners
II read in the lesson that eso and ello are mostly interchangable, except when used as a direct object. In that case you must use Eso. But in some sentences where I have used eso it was marked as incorrect in favour of ello. What am i missing? I didn't see a rule that said this is when ello is correct and eso is not acceptable. Thanks
Hola,
Could you shed some light on why that is used here, please?
Es fantástico que ellos estén a salvo.
Gracias,
vegana por su novio. I put se ha hecho.
My sister has become a vegan for her boyfriend.How is this different from the example given with the use of hacerse?
Example given:Se ha hecho vegetariana después de ver el documental.She became a vegetarian after watching the documentary.
Is it because he changed (radically) for his girlfriend and not his (ideology) on his own accord ?
Hola Inma,
-Juan le compró a su mujer un diamante. -Le habrá comprado un diamante pero no le hace ni caso.In the above example of yours, is it correct to use le compraría /le habría comprado un diamante pero no le hace ni caso, since le compró is a past accion.
I' m really confused with these two lessons: using el Futuro Simple / Futuro Perfecto to express objection,disbelief and using el Conticional simple / Conticional Perfecto to express objection,disbelief.
Muchas gracias!
Ελισάβετ
Could you please provide a list with the most common ones at the end of the lesson?
In the phrase
"If... , they'd have given you a decent room." I understand why hubieran dado is correct, but isn't hubiesen dado also an acceptable form of the pluscuamperfecto de subjuntivo?Am I correct to assume that the possessive adjective has to match the gender of the noun?
Hi,
I was comparing two of the sentences above:
Clara se lava los pies cada día
and
Nosotros nos ponemos crema solar en la cara.
In English, both refer to plural objects i.e. her feet and our faces. In Spanish, los pies but la clara.
I wondered why Spanish refers to 'la clara' rather than 'las claras' as there is more than one subject therefore more than one object.
Thanks.
Colin
I notice that Spanish often inserts el/la where English doesn't. Like "como la observación, la intuición y la lógica." whereas in English one writes "like observation, tuition, and logic."
Is there a rule for this?
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