Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,907 questions • 9,659 answers • 972,199 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,907 questions • 9,659 answers • 972,199 learners
Hi -
Wondering if you could explain when to use le instead of la or lo? I usually think of le as “to him” or “to her” like an indirect object. But I am not sure. Thank you!
I’m the examples “that is an umbrella” and “I have an idea” where there is no clear gender established is it acceptable to use either un or una?
Hi,
I did a search on your site to find out the above, but there were not results.
Do you have a lesson/guidelines on how to form adjectives from country names?
In the quiz there were names of countries and I couldn't tell how to form the plural adjective.
Thank you, Nicole
hi the Link to the wider lesson on this isnt working. When will it be available?
Im currently working on the idea that (in Spain) spaniards use the present perfect (when English would use the simple past) when there is a sense that the verb happened in the recent past, or otherwise related to the present in some way. e.g you SAW the film THIS week, we SAW your parents (maybe THIS morning), or they SAW the sunrise (last night).
is this right?
Qué provocar el subjuntivo en esta frase:
Tendremos que usar cuanto dinero tengamos. Es muy caro.
?
I looked at the comments regarding quería and querría . But I do not see anyone asking abut Quisiera as I translation for "I would like". Would that also be translated in the present.
Also, I thought that when the speaker says what she would like, that part of the sentence would not be subjunctive.Although, I think that when an English speaker says "I would like you to .. . ." as opposed to "I want you to..." the former is softer, I just have a lot of trouble with the subjunctive and to be sure I understand this part of it
« Conjugate "decir" in the Pretérito Perfecto» I did it in the Pretérito Perfecto Simple!
Should we not been informed to use "decir" in the Pretérito Perfecto COMPUESTO?
No aceptaba que su amigo tuviera una serpiente en casa.
She couldn't accept her friend having a snake at home.
Why does this not translate to:
"She didn't accept that her friend had a snake at home."
In other words, why isn't "had" the translation for "tuviera" instead of "having"?
Would you explain why it is el hacha afilada, but it is una ave bonita, please. Both have feminine modifiers. I’m becoming more confused as I go.
Here’s an explanation that I found elsewhere:
“Feminine nouns that begin with a stressed "a-" or "ha-" sound in Spanish use the definite article "el" in the singular."
The example given is:
"Who's incredibly attractive; a real night owl. Sí, pero indica que no es un ave de paso.”
The above example uses un, not una.
en ese casa hay mucho - but as casa is feminine shouldn't it be mucha
Find your Spanish level for FREE
And get your personalised Study Plan to improve it
Find your Spanish level