Spanish language Q&A Forum

Is there some consistency I am missing in endings in -ar, -er, and -ir verbs in el imperativo? Ex's: Levántate (-ar), siéntese (-ir), córtense (-ar), levantémonos (-ar), acuéstate (ar). Something to do with reflexive?

The sentence 'Voy a aprovechar este trozo de tela para hacerme una falda', is repeated from an above example block, and doesn't match the intent of 'Sometimes we can use "aprovechar" with the same meaning as above but with no direct object.'

Maybe the example sentence at the bottom of the lesson was meant to be included: 'Al cancelarse la clase de español, los estudiantes aprovecharon para irse a tomar una cerveza juntos.', as it isn't shown elsewhere.

How will be equivocar for el/ella ?

    I am sure that I am missing something that is right before my eyes, but I am going to ask for clarification anyway.

    The lesson states that "cualquier is used BEFORE a singular noun."

    Further it indicates Cualquiera must be preceded by un or una + and comes AFTER a singlular noun.

    Lastly it references the plural of Cualqiera: cualesquiera. This has no requisite precedent (un/una). 

    Therefore, please explain if there is an exception as apparent in the following:

"La Unión estará de CUALESQUIERA derechos de aduana." This test question has no article precedent (un/una) and CUALESQUIERA appears BEFORE the noun (derechos de aduana); that is, it appears to act more in line with the singular CUALQUIER. So the question is: Is CUALESQUIERA the plural of Cualquier and not the plural of Cualquiera. Thank in advance for your help and response.

Doesn't rosado also mean pink?

In this exercise, the phrase "Este torero es cordobés." is pronounced by your recorded speaker as if the final word is spelled "cordobéz".  Which is correct?