Two Complete Sentences Separated by a CommaI have seen a lot of sentences like the examples below:
1. Todavía
no han llegado, su avión debe haberse retrasado.
They
haven't arrived yet, their flight must have had a delay.
2. Cristina
ha debido de ser una buena profesora, sus estudiantes le han comprado
flores.
Cristina must have been a
good teacher, her students bought her some flowers.
I respect that Spanish uses punctuation differently, in some cases, from the way English uses punctuation. However, the Spanish sentences and the English translations use a comma to separate the two sentences in each example (these examples were taken from a quiz on Kwiziq). For the Spanish, I've checked RAE and I cannot understand why these two sentences are joined by a comma when it seems they should be separated by a period or a semicolon (or even possibly adding a connector or conjunction to join them). For the English translation, in American English we would have to somehow separate these two complete sentences with some form of punctuation (period or semicolon). I have also seen similar constructions in other writing, but not usually in newspapers or academic writing. If you could provide an explanation, I would appreciate it. Thank you.
Mi hermano tiene ________ perros.
My brother has many dogs.
In this quiz I put "muchos" however I got it wrong as it said the correct answer is "muchas". Which word is feminine in this sentence?
I understand that saying:
"Hoy, hace mucho calor" and "Hoy hace frio" are both correct.
Is it correct to use the adjective, "caliente" to describe the weather?
And, if so, would you say: "Esta mucho caliente." or "Hace mucho caliente." ?
Gracias!
I am not able to see the text. I can only play? How can I see the text to read?
Just a query.. why is it " tenemos que conocer nuestras emociones" (no "a"), but "para poder controlar a estas" (with the personal "a") in the same sentence referring to the same object? Is this inconsistency typical of conversational speech?
The 'tilde' in difícil needs correcting in your "No fue muy díficil de transformar". It is pronounced correctly by the speaker.
I have seen a lot of sentences like the examples below:
1. Todavía no han llegado, su avión debe haberse retrasado.
They haven't arrived yet, their flight must have had a delay.
2. Cristina ha debido de ser una buena profesora, sus estudiantes le han comprado flores.
Cristina must have been a good teacher, her students bought her some flowers.
I respect that Spanish uses punctuation differently, in some cases, from the way English uses punctuation. However, the Spanish sentences and the English translations use a comma to separate the two sentences in each example (these examples were taken from a quiz on Kwiziq). For the Spanish, I've checked RAE and I cannot understand why these two sentences are joined by a comma when it seems they should be separated by a period or a semicolon (or even possibly adding a connector or conjunction to join them). For the English translation, in American English we would have to somehow separate these two complete sentences with some form of punctuation (period or semicolon). I have also seen similar constructions in other writing, but not usually in newspapers or academic writing. If you could provide an explanation, I would appreciate it. Thank you.
Buenas tardes,
Whenever I click on the link for the lesson on conjugating ‘Hacer’ en el Futuro Simple I am brought here for conjugating ‘Salir’ en el Futuro Simple.
I’d be most grateful if you could check this out of me.
Hello,
I was just wondering about this today, how to tell when to use the subjunctive or the future. Both have this element of uncertainly - to a certain degree - haven't happened as yet and both deal with maybes, etc. The future is never really set in stone.
For example : I will go out when the sun shines. I think that in Spanish this could be said in either future or subjunctive, i.e.:
Saldré cuando brille el sol.
Saldré cuando brillará el sol.
Can you help me better understand this.
Thank you.
Nicole
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