Spanish language Q&A Forum

In the sentence 'Les amenecé seriamente' I don't understand why the indirect object pronoun 'Les' is used. I would have thought it would have been a direct object pronoun ie 'Los' or 'Las'. Are 'they' not the direct object of the threatening? I seem to often have a problem with this. It's ok when it's a straightforward 'I gave the present TO her' for example where it is quite clear but in sentences like the one above I get very confused as it often seems the indirect object pronoun is used. Any advice greatly appreciated.

Hola,

Can you explain why the translations are "Eran tan refrescas" and "...estaba deliciosa." 

They are both describing the food so I would have thought that they would both been the same - i.e. using ser.

Hope you can clarify.

Regards

John

What difference would it make if I used esté instead of estuviera?

I don’t understand the use of present perfect in telling past events. 

Hi,

The two problems with use of English posted some time ago are still not fixed.  Hence, I'm still struggling to get to grips with this lesson.

"If I went to the hairdresser's" in English means; "If I were to go".  They are equivqlent.

Similarly.  "If he had an accident"  is equivalent to " if he were  to have an accident".

In both cases, the first sentence is common usage.  The second using the the subjunctive is very uncommon in everyday English.

I don't understanding the translation. For example why not use Domimos instead of "Hemos dormido", and why not anoche instead of "esta noche"?

The table has two examples of verbs not three.

How many distinct classes of irregular verbs are there in the subjunctive present tense?
If it is possible to say, how many distinct irregular verbs that do not belong to a class, such as ir, are there in the subjunctive present tense?
Knowing the answers to these questions could help me form a strategy to learn them most effectively and efficiently. I would love to simplify the learning of this topic.

Thank you, James