Two Complete Sentences Separated by a CommaI have seen a lot of sentences like the examples below:
1. Todavía
no han llegado, su avión debe haberse retrasado.
They
haven't arrived yet, their flight must have had a delay.
2. Cristina
ha debido de ser una buena profesora, sus estudiantes le han comprado
flores.
Cristina must have been a
good teacher, her students bought her some flowers.
I respect that Spanish uses punctuation differently, in some cases, from the way English uses punctuation. However, the Spanish sentences and the English translations use a comma to separate the two sentences in each example (these examples were taken from a quiz on Kwiziq). For the Spanish, I've checked RAE and I cannot understand why these two sentences are joined by a comma when it seems they should be separated by a period or a semicolon (or even possibly adding a connector or conjunction to join them). For the English translation, in American English we would have to somehow separate these two complete sentences with some form of punctuation (period or semicolon). I have also seen similar constructions in other writing, but not usually in newspapers or academic writing. If you could provide an explanation, I would appreciate it. Thank you.
Note that primero (first) and tercero (third) have a shorter form when they are placed in front of a masculine singular noun. " Then when are primero and tercero used, if ever?
Hello, I'm wondering why the subjunctive here is used but then not in the same sentence:
"no la dejes ir y cuida su amistad"
shouldn't it be: "no la dejes ir y cuide su amistad" since both are suggestions?
Thank you
I have seen a lot of sentences like the examples below:
1. Todavía no han llegado, su avión debe haberse retrasado.
They haven't arrived yet, their flight must have had a delay.
2. Cristina ha debido de ser una buena profesora, sus estudiantes le han comprado flores.
Cristina must have been a good teacher, her students bought her some flowers.
I respect that Spanish uses punctuation differently, in some cases, from the way English uses punctuation. However, the Spanish sentences and the English translations use a comma to separate the two sentences in each example (these examples were taken from a quiz on Kwiziq). For the Spanish, I've checked RAE and I cannot understand why these two sentences are joined by a comma when it seems they should be separated by a period or a semicolon (or even possibly adding a connector or conjunction to join them). For the English translation, in American English we would have to somehow separate these two complete sentences with some form of punctuation (period or semicolon). I have also seen similar constructions in other writing, but not usually in newspapers or academic writing. If you could provide an explanation, I would appreciate it. Thank you.
Hi,
In the sentence, "Los pájaros son sus animales favoritos.", how can you tell who 'sus' is without a prompt?
Thanks.
Colin
Hola,
In a Spanish show I've been watching, I often see the Object verb subject construction. What I would like to know is how prevalent this construction is in everyday Spanish. Are there situations where it is more commonly used?
Example.
Nos gustaría que sus cosas las tuvieran los niños.
Nos gustaría que los niños las tuvieran sus cosas.
*Sus cosas = Las cosas de sus hijas
Yo compito en los 100 metros libres de natación.
I compete in the 100 metres freestyle swimming.
Would you please explain natación vs nadar?
Hola,
Is there a lesson which develops this theme, and discusses when the definite article is used with the noun in the body of a sentence - and if there are times when this is not the case?
Thanks. John
On this question, "Me encantan los quesos franceses y las tartas ________." the correct answer is marked as francesas.
Isn't the french cheese masculine, "el queso francés"? So isn't the answer franceses?
Included in the possible answers in the mini-quiz are:
1. Ni un bocadillo ni un burrito me apetece. (Correct)
2. Me apetece ni un bocadillo ni un burrito. (Incorrect)
Can you please explain how placing "Me apetece" at the beginning of the sentence instead of the end changes the meaning and makes it incorrect?
Many thanks.
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