Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,715 questions • 9,196 answers • 905,170 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,715 questions • 9,196 answers • 905,170 learners
Hola
I'm confused as to why this lesson exists. Doesn't this one Using se debe/n and se puede/n + infinitive to say you must / you can (passive) already cover it??
thanks
I thought that ' el billete de tren' had a determiner - 'el' as opposed to the general 'un billete de tren'. Please explain
How many distinct classes of irregular verbs are there in the subjunctive present tense?
If it is possible to say, how many distinct irregular verbs that do not belong to a class, such as ir, are there in the subjunctive present tense?
Knowing the answers to these questions could help me form a strategy to learn them most effectively and efficiently. I would love to simplify the learning of this topic.
Thank you, James
Hola, I see most of the reflective verb examples are habitual sentences, such as "todas las mananas", "todos los dias", 'siempre" etc. Is this usually how a reflective verb would be used? at least in the beginner's context? Gracias
Here is an example of something I have asked about before and have sent you a screen print. Unfortunately, the screen print was undecipherable for you. Here is a different approach.
B1 Pronouns
Reciprocal verbs in Spanish and position of the reflexive pronoun
Which is the correct sentence for "We can't marry each other"?
No podemos casarnos. correct No podemos nos casar. No podemos casar nos. No nos podemos casar. correct Nos no podemos casar.As you can see, there are two correct answers, but that is not what is asked in the question by indicating the, which would mean one answer. This is something which occurs quite often in these lessons.
Hola))
What is a Spanish equivalent for needn't have (done)?
Why is "Te los voy a comprar." only nearly correct? Isn't this structure as correct as "Voy a comprartelos."?
I wonder if there is a discussion of the pronunciation of these two words. Depending on the speaker, they sound the same to me. I have noticed in some accents in the north, there's a slight "l" sound in the ll, and even my late great uncle (from the north of Spain) had explained to me that this is a thing, but also he explained this to me a long, long ago and I just want to know if I'm hearing things correctly or if my brain's making it up. ¡Gracias!
Find your Spanish level for FREE
Test your Spanish to the CEFR standard
Find your Spanish level