Spanish language Q&A Forum

Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers

5,988 questions • 9,792 answers • 1,005,761 learners

Find your Spanish level for FREE

And get your personalised Study Plan to improve it

allison h.C1Kwiziq Q&A regular contributor

Past tense in the main clause triggers imperfect subjunctive? Why is this in present subjunctive?1

Me han recomendado que ________ a un abogado. Someone has recommended that I hire a lawyer.contratecontratarcontrataríacontrataré

Asked 6 years ago

Like1Answer1

Wylie Y.C1Kwiziq Q&A regular contributor

Answer to question on "le encanta."

I'm sorry, but I believe this to be a misleading question. "Le encanta jugando con sus hijos." = "She loves playing with her children." She loves to play with her children", would be "Le encanta jugar con sus hijos." I feel like I'm being penalized for speaking too much Spanish.

Asked 6 years ago

Like0Answer1

Boros A.A1Kwiziq community member

When to use formal vs. informal

Hi,

I'm learning Spanish to keep up with my family (mixed origins from spain, latin america, south america, etc.) and I've noticed that I don't quite understand when the people I'm talking to prefer that I use formal or informal.

Are there any general guidelines or standards as for when one is more appropriate? Like if it's someone who is your senior or based on how close you are to each other? Or is this maybe not as big a deal these days as it might have been in the past?

Thanks, Dawn.

Asked 4 years ago

Like1Answer2

Mary Jane H.C1Kwiziq community member

Confusion about "me faltaras"

There is a beautiful song, "Yolanda," by the Cuban singer/songwriter Pablo Milanés. The construction of one sentence using faltar confounds me: "Si me faltaras no voy a morirme." Why is faltar conjugated in second person singular? I'm having trouble fitting this usage in with any of the lesson examples. What am I missing? Thank you!

https://www.musica.com/letras.asp?letra=125255

Asked 5 years ago

Like1Answer4

K. M.B1Kwiziq Q&A regular contributor

There are several things that are confusing about this lesson - the terms and meanings. You use both pretérito perfecto (once)

and pretérito perfecto compuesto (twice) in the same lesson for the same verb form. Is it possible to use just one.

Also, in my experience, ha invitado has usually been translated as has invited rather than invited/ ha visto as has seen rather than saw. So, I would then translate había visto as had seen. This is very confusing. Help. K

Asked 8 years ago

Like0Answer1

Joseph A.A1Kwiziq community member

I work in Ventura County California. Does this Spanish course teach the same as around here?

Asked 7 years ago

Like0Answer1

Maree B.A1Kwiziq community member

Shouldn’t ‘tengo’ be ‘tenga’, in the subjunctive?

Shouldn’t ‘tengo’ in the first line be ‘tenga’ in the subjunctive? Why isn’t it?

Asked 4 years ago

Like0Answer4

Colin H.A2Kwiziq Q&A regular contributor