Two Complete Sentences Separated by a CommaI have seen a lot of sentences like the examples below:
1. Todavía
no han llegado, su avión debe haberse retrasado.
They
haven't arrived yet, their flight must have had a delay.
2. Cristina
ha debido de ser una buena profesora, sus estudiantes le han comprado
flores.
Cristina must have been a
good teacher, her students bought her some flowers.
I respect that Spanish uses punctuation differently, in some cases, from the way English uses punctuation. However, the Spanish sentences and the English translations use a comma to separate the two sentences in each example (these examples were taken from a quiz on Kwiziq). For the Spanish, I've checked RAE and I cannot understand why these two sentences are joined by a comma when it seems they should be separated by a period or a semicolon (or even possibly adding a connector or conjunction to join them). For the English translation, in American English we would have to somehow separate these two complete sentences with some form of punctuation (period or semicolon). I have also seen similar constructions in other writing, but not usually in newspapers or academic writing. If you could provide an explanation, I would appreciate it. Thank you.
Hello, I also fell into the trap of "puedes ver publicidad" but it was not shown as being an acceptable answer, 10 months after the last reply here.
Hola
With the expression pasarselo bien, I have seen examples elsewhere written "la estoy pasando bien" (ie no reflexive pronoun and a feminine direct object pronoun) Please could you explain what the "la" refers to and if both expressions are interchangeable?
Gracias
Dee
I have seen a lot of sentences like the examples below:
1. Todavía no han llegado, su avión debe haberse retrasado.
They haven't arrived yet, their flight must have had a delay.
2. Cristina ha debido de ser una buena profesora, sus estudiantes le han comprado flores.
Cristina must have been a good teacher, her students bought her some flowers.
I respect that Spanish uses punctuation differently, in some cases, from the way English uses punctuation. However, the Spanish sentences and the English translations use a comma to separate the two sentences in each example (these examples were taken from a quiz on Kwiziq). For the Spanish, I've checked RAE and I cannot understand why these two sentences are joined by a comma when it seems they should be separated by a period or a semicolon (or even possibly adding a connector or conjunction to join them). For the English translation, in American English we would have to somehow separate these two complete sentences with some form of punctuation (period or semicolon). I have also seen similar constructions in other writing, but not usually in newspapers or academic writing. If you could provide an explanation, I would appreciate it. Thank you.
In the sentence 'Les amenecé seriamente' I don't understand why the indirect object pronoun 'Les' is used. I would have thought it would have been a direct object pronoun ie 'Los' or 'Las'. Are 'they' not the direct object of the threatening? I seem to often have a problem with this. It's ok when it's a straightforward 'I gave the present TO her' for example where it is quite clear but in sentences like the one above I get very confused as it often seems the indirect object pronoun is used. Any advice greatly appreciated.
This device is often used in story telling and especially in jokes. E.g. "A man goes into a pub and asks the barman ......" It adds a freshness and immediacy to the narrative.
There could be an element of doubt in "Piensan que"
Would you use subjunctive to translate?
They think that the missing jewels might have been stolen but they are not sure.
She might have left them at the hotel.
There is a beautiful song, "Yolanda," by the Cuban singer/songwriter Pablo Milanés. The construction of one sentence using faltar confounds me: "Si me faltaras no voy a morirme." Why is faltar conjugated in second person singular? I'm having trouble fitting this usage in with any of the lesson examples. What am I missing? Thank you!
https://www.musica.com/letras.asp?letra=125255
Instead of just adding "Me llamo", I wrote "me llamo Juan" inadvertently giving the answer "Me llamo Juan Juan". This is accidental! Yet Kwiziq marks it incorrect! Almost certainly, this would never occur in a practical situation.
Also when using my tablet, I sometimes miss out a question by accident. Kwiziq should prompt that all the questions have not been answered. This is also accidental! Yet Kwiziq marks it incorrect!
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