Spanish language Q&A Forum

Your English original is: "the tango is one of the most sensual dances that exists in the world". During the course of the exercise, I felt that "exists" should really be plural, so I put "existen" in my translation answer - and that was accepted as correct. However, your final Spanish version still makes it singular.

Juan y tú proveísteis

One of the questions connected to this lesson is: No es posible que ________ en la montaña. (It is not possible that they got lost in the mountains.)

The correct answers are given as se perdieran and se perdiesen. But why can't it be se hayan perdido as well?

I learned that you can use the futuro simple and the condicional simple to express something which might happen in the future.

Is the difference that the futuro simple only can be used with a sentence which states the probability of the action?

E.g.:

Tú ________ chocolate sin parar

Comerías

Pero:

Probablemente, tú comerás chocolate sin parar.

If my assumption is correct, what is the difference to:

Probablemente, tú comerías chocolate sin parar.

I understand your explanation of the usage of this pair, but cannot relate them to the sentences that you set and so consequently keep getting marked wrong. It is very unlikely that I will ever do much writing in Spanish, so it is not very important to me. Unfortunately, the consequence of getting them wrong means that you keep on setting new ones on the same subject. A vicious circle. Can you please stop setting them for me so that I can move on and learn new things. The same applies to que/qué

Why is Cómo estás? wrong when the question asks for all possible answers for asking an elderly man? What if an elderly man is asking another elderly man?

Wouldn't we always use "el azúcar" for phonetic reasons?

Thanks!

Marcos

In the question:

They will be very cold when they go to Scotland next December.

It seems to me that this is a quite certain plan, like one of the examples here: ‘ Cuando voy de vacaciones a Tenerife me hospedo en el hotel Olimpia.’

So I thought the answer should be in the indicative:

Tendrán mucho frío cuando irán a Escocia el próximo diciembre.

But the correct answer was in the subjunctive:

Tendrán mucho frío cuando vayan a Escocia el próximo diciembre.

Why is that? Is it a mistake?

Included in the possible answers in the mini-quiz are:

1. Ni un bocadillo ni un burrito me apetece. (Correct)

2. Me apetece ni un bocadillo ni un burrito. (Incorrect)

Can you please explain how placing "Me apetece" at the beginning of the sentence instead of the end changes the meaning and makes it incorrect?

Many thanks.

With "tener que + infinitive" do you have to attach the pronoun to the infinitive or can it also be placed before "tener"?

Example: Tengo que lavarme las manos.

Me tengo que lavar las manos.

Are both sentences correct or is only the first sentence correct?