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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,819 questions • 9,535 answers • 953,218 learners
With "tener que + infinitive" do you have to attach the pronoun to the infinitive or can it also be placed before "tener"?
Example: Tengo que lavarme las manos.
Me tengo que lavar las manos.
Are both sentences correct or is only the first sentence correct?
In one of the examples, "las legumbres" is translated as "pulses". Shouldn't that be "legumes"?
Your English original is: "the tango is one of the most sensual dances that exists in the world". During the course of the exercise, I felt that "exists" should really be plural, so I put "existen" in my translation answer - and that was accepted as correct. However, your final Spanish version still makes it singular.
Hola Inma,
Yes I also missed the meaning of "con" as you explained below. When I read this sentence I also translated it as "Don't come back with that girl" as if a disapproving parent were making their feelings known. To paraphrase it, "don't bring that girl back here again."
How might I translate that meaning?
Saludos
John
"Alfredo se quedó tan sorprendido que se puso pálido"
Por qué no es "se puso tan sorprendido"? En la explicación de grammática 'Using convertirse en / ponerse / hacerse / quedarse´, se dice que se debería usar ´quedar´ por los cambios permenantes, y poner por los temporales.
I understand your explanation of the usage of this pair, but cannot relate them to the sentences that you set and so consequently keep getting marked wrong. It is very unlikely that I will ever do much writing in Spanish, so it is not very important to me. Unfortunately, the consequence of getting them wrong means that you keep on setting new ones on the same subject. A vicious circle. Can you please stop setting them for me so that I can move on and learn new things. The same applies to que/qué
In the sentence 'Les amenecé seriamente' I don't understand why the indirect object pronoun 'Les' is used. I would have thought it would have been a direct object pronoun ie 'Los' or 'Las'. Are 'they' not the direct object of the threatening? I seem to often have a problem with this. It's ok when it's a straightforward 'I gave the present TO her' for example where it is quite clear but in sentences like the one above I get very confused as it often seems the indirect object pronoun is used. Any advice greatly appreciated.
This device is often used in story telling and especially in jokes. E.g. "A man goes into a pub and asks the barman ......" It adds a freshness and immediacy to the narrative.
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