Two Complete Sentences Separated by a CommaI have seen a lot of sentences like the examples below:
1. Todavía
no han llegado, su avión debe haberse retrasado.
They
haven't arrived yet, their flight must have had a delay.
2. Cristina
ha debido de ser una buena profesora, sus estudiantes le han comprado
flores.
Cristina must have been a
good teacher, her students bought her some flowers.
I respect that Spanish uses punctuation differently, in some cases, from the way English uses punctuation. However, the Spanish sentences and the English translations use a comma to separate the two sentences in each example (these examples were taken from a quiz on Kwiziq). For the Spanish, I've checked RAE and I cannot understand why these two sentences are joined by a comma when it seems they should be separated by a period or a semicolon (or even possibly adding a connector or conjunction to join them). For the English translation, in American English we would have to somehow separate these two complete sentences with some form of punctuation (period or semicolon). I have also seen similar constructions in other writing, but not usually in newspapers or academic writing. If you could provide an explanation, I would appreciate it. Thank you.
I know 'para' usually goes in front of verbs in the infinitive form. When does 'por' go in front of verbs in the infinitive form?
¿Tienen el mismo significado "está por llover" y "está para llover"? ¿Hay algún matiz?
The lesson says "Sometimes "ya" is omitted, and the structure admits some flexibility"
But when is the "ya" omitted? And why?
Hola,
In the explanation for the following sentence, it's mentioned that one of the subjunctive possibilities is that it might snow later:
Aunque esté nevando, voy a sacar al perro a pasear.
My question is: because we are using nevando, rather than nieva - is that not telling us it is snowing right now (present participle), and therefore can't be a future event?
So, the only possibility is that it is subjunctive because it is shared information that it is snowing right now?
Gracias,
In the first sentence, is it possible to omit the “de” ? ie, “escoger entre todas las fiestas” ?
If so, does the nuance of the meaning change at all?
I have seen a lot of sentences like the examples below:
1. Todavía no han llegado, su avión debe haberse retrasado.
They haven't arrived yet, their flight must have had a delay.
2. Cristina ha debido de ser una buena profesora, sus estudiantes le han comprado flores.
Cristina must have been a good teacher, her students bought her some flowers.
I respect that Spanish uses punctuation differently, in some cases, from the way English uses punctuation. However, the Spanish sentences and the English translations use a comma to separate the two sentences in each example (these examples were taken from a quiz on Kwiziq). For the Spanish, I've checked RAE and I cannot understand why these two sentences are joined by a comma when it seems they should be separated by a period or a semicolon (or even possibly adding a connector or conjunction to join them). For the English translation, in American English we would have to somehow separate these two complete sentences with some form of punctuation (period or semicolon). I have also seen similar constructions in other writing, but not usually in newspapers or academic writing. If you could provide an explanation, I would appreciate it. Thank you.
Imagino que vosotros ________ la verdad. I imagine that you had told the truth.HINT: Conjugate "decir" in El Pretérito Pluscuamperfecto
Imagining always takes the indicative, or is this case specific?
Thanks.
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