Spanish language Q&A Forum

With "tener que + infinitive" do you have to attach the pronoun to the infinitive or can it also be placed before "tener"?

Example: Tengo que lavarme las manos.

Me tengo que lavar las manos.

Are both sentences correct or is only the first sentence correct?

hi - What is the indicator we should look for to understand whether the verb is being used for third person presente or second person imperativo? Is it that in Presente, there will always be an El / Ella?

Another common idiom is "no ver la hora (de)"

¡No veo la hora! - I can't wait!

or

No veo la hora de volver a casa. - I can't wait to return home.

¡Jajaja, la probrecita Lalá!

Si sólo fuera una perrita como Lalá, Qué vida tan fácil, no? :))

Gracias a Shui y Inma.

Why is it "*por* dónde estaremos" instead of "dónde estaremos" in the sample question? 

How does "could" translate from "Dónde estará esa chica?" Isn't that future tense?  Would "¿Dónde podría estar esa chica?" be more correct?

Hello,

re: Lo que pase con tu madre no es tu culpa .  

I came across this sentence containing "Lo que" but for the life of me, can't figure out (by only looking at the Spanish) that "lo que" here means "whatever" and would therefore trigger the subjunctive. 

How can I tell what is being intended by just reading such a sentence and be able to choose between "what" and "whatever"?

Thank you,

Nicole

Why is it "Han salido" and not "Salieron"

Thank you! 

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Degustation