llamar with indirect or direct objectsi read from one of the question asked before in one of the grammar lesson, and it is confirmed that llamar is a transitive verb and takes direct object but comes with a preposition A because it is personal a. llamar + a + alguien.
But then i also came across llamar a la puerta for example. why is there a preposition A?
or did i get it wrong that it is not personal A but a fixed expression with llamar + a + any direct objects?
voy a llamar a Juan = voy a llamarlo, voy a llamar a la puerta = voy a llamarla.
But i did come across sentences that do not use preposition a for llamar.
le llamo idiota a juan - i called juan idiot. is this correct?
Other than calling people directly like telephoning or shouting for them, we can also call them names. is this where there wont be preposition A?
sorry for my errors as i am still not familiar with using the llamar verb.
Un avión no se monta, se vuela en aviones.
i read from one of the question asked before in one of the grammar lesson, and it is confirmed that llamar is a transitive verb and takes direct object but comes with a preposition A because it is personal a. llamar + a + alguien.
But then i also came across llamar a la puerta for example. why is there a preposition A?
or did i get it wrong that it is not personal A but a fixed expression with llamar + a + any direct objects?
voy a llamar a Juan = voy a llamarlo, voy a llamar a la puerta = voy a llamarla.
But i did come across sentences that do not use preposition a for llamar.
le llamo idiota a juan - i called juan idiot. is this correct?
Other than calling people directly like telephoning or shouting for them, we can also call them names. is this where there wont be preposition A?
sorry for my errors as i am still not familiar with using the llamar verb.
Hi,
The two problems with use of English posted some time ago are still not fixed. Hence, I'm still struggling to get to grips with this lesson.
"If I went to the hairdresser's" in English means; "If I were to go". They are equivqlent.
Similarly. "If he had an accident" is equivalent to " if he were to have an accident".
In both cases, the first sentence is common usage. The second using the the subjunctive is very uncommon in everyday English.
On the quiz, the question was: Es ________ hora; ven más tarde.
My answer was “una mala” and it was marked wrong. It was supposed to be just “mala”.
Could please explain why “una mala” is incorrect? It didn’t mention anything in the text about not using the article. Thanks.
Yes .. .I have the same question. John
It's not clear which preposition to use with quien for Whose, For Whom / To Whom and With Whom?
Is the below correct?
Whose = de quien
For Whom / To Whom = para quien
With Whom = con quien
I think playa is a feminine noun. No?
hi the Link to the wider lesson on this isnt working. When will it be available?
Im currently working on the idea that (in Spain) spaniards use the present perfect (when English would use the simple past) when there is a sense that the verb happened in the recent past, or otherwise related to the present in some way. e.g you SAW the film THIS week, we SAW your parents (maybe THIS morning), or they SAW the sunrise (last night).
is this right?
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