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6,073 questions • 9,948 answers • 1,032,809 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,073 questions • 9,948 answers • 1,032,809 learners
For this question: Es improbable que los niños ________ la puerta. These options show as correct: hayan roto / rompieran. I understand hayan roto, as the impersonal beginning signifies "subjunctive", and the event is in the past. However, I learned at a language school in Cuernavaca that present tense statements (es improbable) could only match with haber + participle, and that only past events (eg "era improbable" could match with imperfect subjunctive (rompieran). The teachers made a big deal out of that. However here it shows up as a legitimate option. Can you explain? Thank you.
Am I correct in understanding that the use of Unos/as is for countable nouns (pears, sunglasses, cellphones... etc)? For non countable nouns such as money, salt, or sugar, you would use a different word to say some?
When I took the ¿Cómo Estás? A2 Kwiz related to this subject, this question below was marked wrong ("feliz" in red), saying my answer should have been "contenta". Since they both refer to being Happy, can you explain why Contenta is better in this sentence?
MARÍA: Venga chicas, ¡ánimo! Yo estoy muy feliz, ¡tengo un trabajo nuevo!
holding down the letter doesn't give me an accent
Luis told me where he had gone on holiday. : Luis me dijo ___ había ido de vacaciones.
The stated answer is “dónde” (with an accent), but this usage seems to be that of a relative pronoun. What am I missing? Why is it “dónde” (with an accent)
I've been reading a book in print and they have "este" (no accent) as the demonstrative adjective and "éste" (accent) as the demonstrative pronoun:
esta casa (adj.)
ésta es mi casa (pron.)
But I don't see that in this lesson. Is it out of date/RAE stuff or is it only included when ambiguous and my book is being overzealous?
Also, there was a really cool little fact in the book that said that "aquél" and "éste" are used in the same way that "former" and "latter" are in English. I'm still confused as to whether the accent is necessary or optional for pronouns, however.
By process of elimination, I selected estuvieron as being the correct answer; however, my preference would have been estaban.
See the example given below:
Mario estaba de camarero en un restaurante.
Mario was working as a waiter in a restaurant.
Here is the question with the answer:
Mis hijos _estuvieron_ de vendedores en una tienda.
My children were working as shop assistants in a store.
My choice:
Mis hijos _estaban_ de vendedores en una tienda.
Would you explain the reason for the answer being the preterite and not the imperfect, please.
Hi,
I thought I had answered this correctly by choosing the subjunctive of terminar: termine. But it was marked wrong with what I think is just another variation on subjunctive for terminar: terminase. (See below.)
Am I wrong? What am I missing here?
Thanks!
Dijeron que nos pagarían las horas extra trabajadas cuando ________ el mes.
They said they'd pay our overtime when it was the end of the month.
terminase
terminaba
terminó
termine
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