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There is a beautiful song, "Yolanda," by the Cuban singer/songwriter Pablo Milanés. The construction of one sentence using faltar confounds me: "Si me faltaras no voy a morirme." Why is faltar conjugated in second person singular? I'm having trouble fitting this usage in with any of the lesson examples. What am I missing? Thank you!
https://www.musica.com/letras.asp?letra=125255
dos pequenos problemas in la seccion verde asi, "And both of these categories are considered invariable indifinite pronouns, that is to say, they don't change to agree in gender or number with the noun that are substituying."
indefinite= indefinite
that are substituying = that they are substitituting for
“Como”can be written with and without accent, it depends on whether it has a interrogative or comparative function.
In another unrelated lesson, a quiz sentence states, 'No me queda mucho dinero pero tengo para dos cervezas más.' Where does this sentence fit in the various meanings of quedar, as explained in this lesson?
In the 1st person and 3rd person singular in the given examples I notice that the words from the verb 'to be able to', i.e 'could' and 'couldn't' are used. In sentences like these would we just have to be aware that these words are implied?
Thank you
Clari.
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