Spanish language Q&A Forum

Just a suggestion:  I feel that the question set for this lesson could be more challenging.  Could add 4 or 5 questions with more room for error rather than translating from Spanish to English.  Choices in Spanish where we could easily go wrong.

Here are two phrases from the text, both giving advice.

1 Seguramente sabrás que en primavera deberías consumir espárragos trigueros, guisantes y habas.  NO ARTICLE

2 Si fuera tú, pondría ingredientes como la lechuga, las endibias, las espinacas, etc.  ARTICLES.

In answering a previous question about articles, Sylvia wrote:

In summary, the choice of using or not using the definite article depends on the linguistic function of the phrase within the sentence, whether it denotes a specific entity (requiring the article) or describes a general quality or manner (where the article may be omitted).

Am I correct that the use of 'como' in phrase 2 triggers a specific entity and thus the article?

Gracias

Hi,

Prior to this lesson I was reading about the subjuntive case of verbs.  It seems that in the sentence above, the subjunctive case has been used.  It does not appear to satisfy the WEIRDO requirements.

Can you please tell me why 'ella se visite' has been used and not 'ella se visita'?

Thanks.

Colin

Saludos, Inma and disculpame,

pero, I notice that there are a lot of "p" popping sounds in the audio of "Ropa de Invierno" and remembered hearing that the Spanish alphabet should be able to be pronounced in front of  a candle without blowing it out. How are the lips and tongue placed to pronounce "p" , "t"  and "s" to achieve that goal, please?

Garry

in one of the examples,

Verás, el chico se va a enfadar y va a coger y le va a dar un puñetazo.

You'll see, the guy is going to get cross and he's going to go and give him a punch.

where does 'se va + a' comes from? is this irse with other meanings?

Could you direct me to the appropriate lesson?

thanks

If I am reading this correctly, you're implying that quien and quienes can also apply to things as well as people. Is that really true? It's my understanding that they can only apply to people.

¿Qué piensas?

I've been reading a book in print and they have "este" (no accent) as the demonstrative adjective and "éste" (accent) as the demonstrative pronoun:

esta casa (adj.)
ésta es mi casa (pron.)

But I don't see that in this lesson. Is it out of date/RAE stuff or is it only included when ambiguous and my book is being overzealous?

Also, there was a really cool little fact in the book that said that "aquél" and "éste" are used in the same way that "former" and "latter" are in English. I'm still confused as to whether the accent is necessary or optional for pronouns, however.