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5,717 questions • 9,200 answers • 905,386 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,717 questions • 9,200 answers • 905,386 learners
Why can't you use "Vamos a ir allá el martes por la mañana" ?
In your explanation above under "careful", the original sense used "acabamos con" but the follow-up explanation used "nos acabamos". Are they interchangeable?
Se comió ________ bocadillo. He ate half the sandwich.
medio was the correct answer. I put "el mitad de" which was marked wrong.
EDIT: Maybe because I used "de" instead of "del"? Now it is being marked correct with that answer. If this is the case, shouldn't it show me that "el mitad del" is the correct answer? This is confusing.
Why is the first sentence future and not present?
Hi, I'm new to the site and trying to understand how it works. Is there a specific section of the site for these exercises or do they only appear as suggestions in the notebook section? Thanks!
This is really nitpicking but I think this can be worded a little more clearly:
"Notice that cada is invariable and is always followed by a singular noun, except when there is a number before the noun, in which case it needs a plural: " I suggest replace "it" with "the noun" . I know preposition refers to the last noun before it but in this case I was confused because I thought it meant "cada" that should be plural. I think because I assumed the noun would obviously be plural.
Hola,
Is there a lesson which develops this theme, and discusses when the definite article is used with the noun in the body of a sentence - and if there are times when this is not the case?
Thanks. John
Hola,
Here is my train of thought. "Ayer estuve en un concierto:" "Yesterday" requires the pretérito indefinido because it refers to a completed action at a time in the past, and the verb is estar because it is referring to a location; hence estuve.
However I am stuck with "Fue en San Juan:" Is San Juan not a location? If so, would it require the verb estar rather than ser?
It would be great if you could explain this.
Many thanks.
Why is it "*por* dónde estaremos" instead of "dónde estaremos" in the sample question?
How does "could" translate from "Dónde estará esa chica?" Isn't that future tense? Would "¿Dónde podría estar esa chica?" be more correct?
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