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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,104 questions • 9,997 answers • 1,047,885 learners
Como / cuando / donde / quien with indicative or subjunctive in Spanish
I find it confusing. there is another note on this to indicate subjunctive with wherever, whoever etc.
is both the same thing with different ways of expressing or it is not the same thing?
call us whenever you get there
in this note, it says = llámame lleguen cuando lleguen
based on another notes, can i say ' llámame cuando lleguen' ?
are both the same?
“Como”can be written with and without accent, it depends on whether it has a interrogative or comparative function.
I've been reading a book in print and they have "este" (no accent) as the demonstrative adjective and "éste" (accent) as the demonstrative pronoun:
esta casa (adj.)
ésta es mi casa (pron.)
But I don't see that in this lesson. Is it out of date/RAE stuff or is it only included when ambiguous and my book is being overzealous?
Also, there was a really cool little fact in the book that said that "aquél" and "éste" are used in the same way that "former" and "latter" are in English. I'm still confused as to whether the accent is necessary or optional for pronouns, however.
There seems to be a lot of doubt in this sentence. What would trigger only the subjunctive?
Thank you. K
What's the difference between:
Hace ocho semanas que estudié.
y
Hace ocho semanas estudié.
I understand the first sentence from this lesson, but is the second one just incorrect or does it mean something else?
I know 'para' usually goes in front of verbs in the infinitive form. When does 'por' go in front of verbs in the infinitive form?
Hola Inma,
I really enjoyed this 'reader'. I'm a big Rosalía fan!
I'm just curious about the 'artistas plásticos' mentioned in this article. Is this simply describing artists that create art from plastic?
Gracias :)
There is a beautiful song, "Yolanda," by the Cuban singer/songwriter Pablo Milanés. The construction of one sentence using faltar confounds me: "Si me faltaras no voy a morirme." Why is faltar conjugated in second person singular? I'm having trouble fitting this usage in with any of the lesson examples. What am I missing? Thank you!
https://www.musica.com/letras.asp?letra=125255
Is it just as common to say “un par de pantalones” as it is to say “unos pantalones”? Thanks.
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