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6,104 questions • 9,997 answers • 1,047,958 learners
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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,104 questions • 9,997 answers • 1,047,958 learners
El smoking es tan elegante como el frac.
I find this example strange, can you check the audio to ensure it matches? I am having trouble with "smoking" how would that be pronounced? Ess-mo-keng? I guess this word is just throwing me for a loop
I don't understand why I am told that it should be "Alberto llora MUY a menudo".
Everything; the lesson included; tells me it should be "mucho".
I learned that you can use the futuro simple and the condicional simple to express something which might happen in the future.
Is the difference that the futuro simple only can be used with a sentence which states the probability of the action?
E.g.:
Tú ________ chocolate sin parar
Comerías
Pero:
Probablemente, tú comerás chocolate sin parar.
If my assumption is correct, what is the difference to:
Probablemente, tú comerías chocolate sin parar.
The examples for "nueva bici" and "bici nueva" towards the end of the lesson contradict both the earlier examples and the table showing the different meanings for the adjectives depending on placement.
vuelvo vs. volviendo i thought iendo=ing when the chicos vuelvan... they return. isn't 'are returning' estan volviendo???
Hello, I am near the end of my Spanish lessons in Kwiziq and I was told by a previous instructor that many tenses (or moods, etc) are no longer used in Spanish. In a previous lesson in the C1 grammar, I think it was mentioned that the future subjunctive mood is no longer used, but it can be found in older books. Can anyone let me know of any tenses that are no longer used that they know about? Or anything about Spanish grammar that is now obsolete?
Thanks, I'm just curious to know : )
Hola,
Ahora mismo tengo muchas ganas de comerme un helado de chocolate.
Is there something to be inferred about the addition of me to the end of comer? As in some extra desire, or is this just another way of saying the same thing with no subtlety of difference?
Gracias,
In a textbook a sentence was given as:
“ Es muy gordo; come más que dos hombres ordinaries.”
My question is why is it not más de because of the “dos” being a quantitative factor. Is it a comparison?
Is soler+infinite geographically universal in Spanish-speaking countries or more common in some countries than in others? ¡Gracias en antemano para los insights!
Hi, Shui, is there a difference between “este está compuesto por” and “este es compuesto por”? I would have expected the ser form in this context. From reverso.com I see both forms are quite common. Why would you choose the estar form in this case, and would the ser form be wrong? Thanks!
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