Spanish language Q&A Forum

In the test question about Pideselas.. The aswers the computer listed were:

1. Order them for them

2. Order them for her

3. Order them for him.

I feel #2 and #3 answers are wrong. Would you please check of that.  I could be wrong myself.  Thank you.

Where does the concept of "leaving early" fit into the choice of answers, please?

Judging by an answer provided for a question below, "me gustaria" is equivalent to the three "queria" forms. That's good news because I've been using "me gustaria" most often. Should that be added to the examples in this lesson?

Also, does this lesson imply that the above three forms are more polite than simply "quiero?" I've asked many here in Colombia about this and they all say that "quiero" is much more common than "me gustaria" and not considered impolite. But still, I have trouble making myself say "quiero" so i usually say "me gustaria." Maybe I should start using "queria."

I guess I have a lot of confusion around "quiero" vs. "queria" vs. "gustaria" and their proper grammar and appropriate usage.

Thank you Inma,

So does that mean that even if "siglo" is singular, you can also use the plural? i.e. "a comienzos de..."

does that mean then that you can use the singular "al comienzo de.." if "siglos" was plural?

Do you have any example sentences for these 2 uses?

Do you have any more info on this use? also is this a Peninsular Spain usage? or universally used?

Thank you. Your replies a very appreciated!  Nicole

From what I have learned from searches, is that :"cuyo" is always an adj, even though in English and French they are pronouns. 

So, is this correct: "cuyo" is always an adj,"

Thank you.

Nicole