Two Complete Sentences Separated by a CommaI have seen a lot of sentences like the examples below:
1. Todavía
no han llegado, su avión debe haberse retrasado.
They
haven't arrived yet, their flight must have had a delay.
2. Cristina
ha debido de ser una buena profesora, sus estudiantes le han comprado
flores.
Cristina must have been a
good teacher, her students bought her some flowers.
I respect that Spanish uses punctuation differently, in some cases, from the way English uses punctuation. However, the Spanish sentences and the English translations use a comma to separate the two sentences in each example (these examples were taken from a quiz on Kwiziq). For the Spanish, I've checked RAE and I cannot understand why these two sentences are joined by a comma when it seems they should be separated by a period or a semicolon (or even possibly adding a connector or conjunction to join them). For the English translation, in American English we would have to somehow separate these two complete sentences with some form of punctuation (period or semicolon). I have also seen similar constructions in other writing, but not usually in newspapers or academic writing. If you could provide an explanation, I would appreciate it. Thank you.
How old is Mafalda?
Hola, y gracias por responder a mi pregunta.
My question relates to the sentence in this quiz:
"and be able to work on the negative aspects."
Kwizbot: y poder trabajar en los aspectos negativos.
You: y ser capaz de trabajar en los aspectos negativos.
Note: My sentence does translate to : “and be able to work on the negative” aspects.
I wanted to check with you if what I wrote: "ser capaz de" is correct and if not, why not ?
And if my use of "ser capaz de" is correct/acceptable? - I would imagine that
there would be some difference in meaning?..- and if so, what that would be.
Thank you for your help.
Nicole
Hello
I do not understand why you use « la » in this sentence?
Se la estamos decorando.
We are decorating it for him.
I have seen a lot of sentences like the examples below:
1. Todavía no han llegado, su avión debe haberse retrasado.
They haven't arrived yet, their flight must have had a delay.
2. Cristina ha debido de ser una buena profesora, sus estudiantes le han comprado flores.
Cristina must have been a good teacher, her students bought her some flowers.
I respect that Spanish uses punctuation differently, in some cases, from the way English uses punctuation. However, the Spanish sentences and the English translations use a comma to separate the two sentences in each example (these examples were taken from a quiz on Kwiziq). For the Spanish, I've checked RAE and I cannot understand why these two sentences are joined by a comma when it seems they should be separated by a period or a semicolon (or even possibly adding a connector or conjunction to join them). For the English translation, in American English we would have to somehow separate these two complete sentences with some form of punctuation (period or semicolon). I have also seen similar constructions in other writing, but not usually in newspapers or academic writing. If you could provide an explanation, I would appreciate it. Thank you.
Is it necessary to use definite article? What difference would it make if we dropped la?
Re: ¿En qué trabajas / trabaja? What do you do? ¿A qué te dedicas / se dedica? What do you do?
Hello, Hope you, the team and families and friends are all well in these difficult times. I was wondering what the difference is if I were to say: "¿A qué trabajas? Since per the lesson this means: "If you want to ask someone what he/she does for a living, you can ask this way: ¿En qué trabajas? What do you do? (Lit: In what do you work?) I included "trabajas" in my reply, but it was marked as incorrect. Thank you for being there and helping out. Nicole
A shorter sentence "mucha gente come uvas juntas" uses juntas!
Both la gente y las personas are feminine nouns. Why juntos (masculine)?
Is it possible to add this list to my notebook?
I understand that pronouns can be left out and the subject is determined by the context of the sentence. I am not very familiar with Castillian, so can "vosotros" be left out in the above sentence and still be grammatically correct?
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