Spanish language Q&A Forum

One of my answers is “No me apetece un bocadillo ni un burrito”.

According to the corrector, this answer is wrong.

I do not understand because in the explanations, there is a note which reads as follows:

“We sometimes omit the first “ni” and only use the “ni” in the second element of the sentence with a verb in negative”

Hi,

I thought I had answered this correctly by choosing the subjunctive of terminar: termine. But it was marked wrong with what I think is just another variation on subjunctive for terminar: terminase. (See below.)

Am I wrong? What am I missing here?

Thanks!

Dijeron que nos pagarían las horas extra trabajadas cuando ________ el mes.

They said they'd pay our overtime when it was the end of the month.

terminase

terminaba

terminó

termine

1)hi, could you tell when is molestar used as gustar verb and not,        2)Also in the sentence, the heat annoys me , the spanish translation for this would be ,                                                                    Me molesta el calor,but wont ``the heat`` =lo(dop)                               So the sentence should be , ``me lo molesta``, but why isnt it so on the translators

3)the structure when molestar is used as ``gustar`` is , iop+molestar+subject.Is this an exception?                                                  R there nay other verbs  like this, 

Hi, is there some kind of rule with the verbs that stem change to ue or is it just a case of learning and remembering which ones do? 

Thanks :) 

That sentence "yo huelo siempre bien" translates to I always smell good.

"huelo" in this sense means for the subject to have a scent, not like "I always smell something good"

The sentence "nosotros olemos las rosas del jardín" translates to we smell the roses in the garden.

in this sense, "olemos" means to physically perceive a smell

So it has two meanings kind of like how it does in English, am I understanding this right?