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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,079 questions • 9,957 answers • 1,037,618 learners
I am having some difficulties with this sentence: Los empleados de la tienda se quedaron perplejos.
Why is quedarse used here and not quedar? I went back to the lesson that deals with the differences and therein both are used with an adjective or participle to express the result of an action (=quedar) or change (=quedarse). For quedar + adjective, it is also written that the meaning is rather "to end up", and I feel like it fits well in the sentence above: they ended up perplexed due to what Beru did.
Could both be correct in this context?
Thanks!
I’ve noticed that nouns with accents on the last syllable, such as el motín, el bastón, and el almacén, are masculine (of course the feminine ión ending is an exception). Is this a general rule? It helps to us automatically think of ataúd and laúd as masculine without having to remember them separately.
I have just started learning about Preterito indefinido and found that one question in the test required a preterito imperfecto answer which I have not yet learned. It is rather confusing .
I put "Acabo de comprar un apartamento " and that was not shown as a possible answer for "I just bought an apartment " but I believe it is correct.
Si iba a la peluquería, me gastaba mucho dinero.
If I went to the hairdresser, I spent a lot of money.
Sorry but I can't make any sense out of the use of English in this example.
"When I went to the hairdresser, I spent a lot of money" No problem
"If I had been to the hairdresser, I would have spent a lort of money" OK
"If I were to go to the hairdresser, I would spend a lot of money"
"If I go to the hairdresser, I shall spend a lot of money"
The example: If I went to the hairdreser, I spent a lot of money" is not good English.
Hope this can be of help.
Ian B
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