Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hello, when I want to translate "they hit her" (occurring in the past for a period), it is translated as "le pegaban" or "la golpeaban".  Why is it an indirect object pronoun for pegar but direct for golpear?

In the example, "We saw a very interesting film at the cinema", why isn't el Pretérito Indefinido used, i.e. "Vimos" instead of "Hemos visto"?   I would think that hemos visto would be used in the following case, "We have seen a very interesting film at the cinema". I can't tell which tense to use.

I initially wrote 'A lo mejor desconoces su existencia' instead of 'puede que desconozcas su existencia' and it was marked incorrectly, could you please kindly explain why?

Can you also please explain why 'tal vez desconozcas' and 'quizás desconozcas' are incorrect, if this is the case?

Why is está bien correct when  it is a permanent condition - shouldn't it be only es buena. 

The confusing part is not se vs le for me but "to" vs "for." Your explanation was that an indirect object means to him/it, etc., but the example is "for him", which is very different in English. I think this needs to be explained. When I speak I usually try to clarify with "para mi" for "for me", but it may not be right.

Tom

Can you wait at the door?

Ustedes pueden .....etc 

Why ustedes, ustedes = they