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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,104 questions • 9,997 answers • 1,047,977 learners
Si iba a la peluquería, me gastaba mucho dinero.
If I went to the hairdresser, I spent a lot of money.
Sorry but I can't make any sense out of the use of English in this example.
"When I went to the hairdresser, I spent a lot of money" No problem
"If I had been to the hairdresser, I would have spent a lort of money" OK
"If I were to go to the hairdresser, I would spend a lot of money"
"If I go to the hairdresser, I shall spend a lot of money"
The example: If I went to the hairdreser, I spent a lot of money" is not good English.
Hope this can be of help.
Ian B
Can you wait at the door?
Ustedes pueden .....etc
Why ustedes, ustedes = they
I thought that ' el billete de tren' had a determiner - 'el' as opposed to the general 'un billete de tren'. Please explain
I’ve noticed that nouns with accents on the last syllable, such as el motín, el bastón, and el almacén, are masculine (of course the feminine ión ending is an exception). Is this a general rule? It helps to us automatically think of ataúd and laúd as masculine without having to remember them separately.
The confusing part is not se vs le for me but "to" vs "for." Your explanation was that an indirect object means to him/it, etc., but the example is "for him", which is very different in English. I think this needs to be explained. When I speak I usually try to clarify with "para mi" for "for me", but it may not be right.
Tom
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