Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,891 questions • 9,639 answers • 968,067 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,891 questions • 9,639 answers • 968,067 learners
I was wondering if there was a reply to his question below:
"didn't need to (infinitive) & needn't have (past participle) are used to express the lack of necessity in the past, ..."
I understand your explanation of the usage of this pair, but cannot relate them to the sentences that you set and so consequently keep getting marked wrong. It is very unlikely that I will ever do much writing in Spanish, so it is not very important to me. Unfortunately, the consequence of getting them wrong means that you keep on setting new ones on the same subject. A vicious circle. Can you please stop setting them for me so that I can move on and learn new things. The same applies to que/qué
Maam what about singular words having accent.How do they form plurals?
I've read the Q&A and related articles and am still confused. The sentence is: My sisters are often late, I always wait for them for two hours. When I apply the information in the lesson's Q&A, I ask myself: "For whom do I wait? For my sisters." Therefore sisters should be an indirect object. However, the quiz gives the direct object pronoun, las, as correct. Which is it and why? (Also, it would be helpful if you edited the questions so the correct answer to this appears consistently.)
ps: it looks like Marcos and Lisa, below, are asking the same question in slightly different ways. Perhaps you can address all 3 questions as a group. Thanks!
Hi,
Prior to this lesson I was reading about the subjuntive case of verbs. It seems that in the sentence above, the subjunctive case has been used. It does not appear to satisfy the WEIRDO requirements.
Can you please tell me why 'ella se visite' has been used and not 'ella se visita'?
Thanks.
Colin
In the Superbike translation exercise, you translated "We'll always remember this day" as "Vamos a acordarnos siempre de este día". Why is "Vamos a recordar siempre de este dia" not also correct ?
1. I find it difficult to think in terms of the Imperfect subjunctive in examples which allude to an event in the future, e.g. "Ojalá nosotros viniésemos el año que viene"... Could we also say "Ojalá nosotros vengamos el año que viene"?
2. [A comment rather than a question]: I personally prefer the "-s-" option for constructing the Imperfect Subjunctive because there is less chance of confusing it with a future construction.
Find your Spanish level for FREE
And get your personalised Study Plan to improve it
Find your Spanish level