Two Complete Sentences Separated by a CommaI have seen a lot of sentences like the examples below:
1. Todavía
no han llegado, su avión debe haberse retrasado.
They
haven't arrived yet, their flight must have had a delay.
2. Cristina
ha debido de ser una buena profesora, sus estudiantes le han comprado
flores.
Cristina must have been a
good teacher, her students bought her some flowers.
I respect that Spanish uses punctuation differently, in some cases, from the way English uses punctuation. However, the Spanish sentences and the English translations use a comma to separate the two sentences in each example (these examples were taken from a quiz on Kwiziq). For the Spanish, I've checked RAE and I cannot understand why these two sentences are joined by a comma when it seems they should be separated by a period or a semicolon (or even possibly adding a connector or conjunction to join them). For the English translation, in American English we would have to somehow separate these two complete sentences with some form of punctuation (period or semicolon). I have also seen similar constructions in other writing, but not usually in newspapers or academic writing. If you could provide an explanation, I would appreciate it. Thank you.
"Alfredo se quedó tan sorprendido que se puso pálido"
Por qué no es "se puso tan sorprendido"? En la explicación de grammática 'Using convertirse en / ponerse / hacerse / quedarse´, se dice que se debería usar ´quedar´ por los cambios permenantes, y poner por los temporales.
In a textbook a sentence was given as:
“ Es muy gordo; come más que dos hombres ordinaries.”
My question is why is it not más de because of the “dos” being a quantitative factor. Is it a comparison?
Hi! So I was just wondering, if I want to say "My wife is a New Mexican", is there a way to say "Mi esposa es una Nuevo Mexicana"? Normally I would make nueva female, but "Nuevo Mexico" is a noun, so I'm not sure. Or should I just go with "Mi esposa es de Nuevo Mexico"? Thank you for your help!
Hi, For some reason when trying to get the video, it says Video unavailable.
However, I was able to see other videos i.e Súbeme la radio - Enrique Iglesias etc.
Nicole
Esta guerra habrá de acabar con la esperanza de paz de la gente.This war will put an end to people's hope for peace.
No te preocupes por lo que nunca ha de pasar.Don't worry about what will never happen.
Why is this second example not taking "haber" in the future tense also? Or is it just a bad English translation?
Pati E.
I have seen a lot of sentences like the examples below:
1. Todavía no han llegado, su avión debe haberse retrasado.
They haven't arrived yet, their flight must have had a delay.
2. Cristina ha debido de ser una buena profesora, sus estudiantes le han comprado flores.
Cristina must have been a good teacher, her students bought her some flowers.
I respect that Spanish uses punctuation differently, in some cases, from the way English uses punctuation. However, the Spanish sentences and the English translations use a comma to separate the two sentences in each example (these examples were taken from a quiz on Kwiziq). For the Spanish, I've checked RAE and I cannot understand why these two sentences are joined by a comma when it seems they should be separated by a period or a semicolon (or even possibly adding a connector or conjunction to join them). For the English translation, in American English we would have to somehow separate these two complete sentences with some form of punctuation (period or semicolon). I have also seen similar constructions in other writing, but not usually in newspapers or academic writing. If you could provide an explanation, I would appreciate it. Thank you.
Hello, I'm wondering why the subjunctive here is used but then not in the same sentence:
"no la dejes ir y cuida su amistad"
shouldn't it be: "no la dejes ir y cuide su amistad" since both are suggestions?
Thank you
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