Two Complete Sentences Separated by a CommaI have seen a lot of sentences like the examples below:
1. Todavía
no han llegado, su avión debe haberse retrasado.
They
haven't arrived yet, their flight must have had a delay.
2. Cristina
ha debido de ser una buena profesora, sus estudiantes le han comprado
flores.
Cristina must have been a
good teacher, her students bought her some flowers.
I respect that Spanish uses punctuation differently, in some cases, from the way English uses punctuation. However, the Spanish sentences and the English translations use a comma to separate the two sentences in each example (these examples were taken from a quiz on Kwiziq). For the Spanish, I've checked RAE and I cannot understand why these two sentences are joined by a comma when it seems they should be separated by a period or a semicolon (or even possibly adding a connector or conjunction to join them). For the English translation, in American English we would have to somehow separate these two complete sentences with some form of punctuation (period or semicolon). I have also seen similar constructions in other writing, but not usually in newspapers or academic writing. If you could provide an explanation, I would appreciate it. Thank you.
Is it just as common to say “un par de pantalones” as it is to say “unos pantalones”? Thanks.
As mentioned in the heading; I got this one wrong when I answered the question with the Spanish phrase
"Tú fuiste muy rápido a Salamanca.”
As “you were the fastest of Salamanca” as the “a” doesnt immediately follow the fuiste.
However this one says that ir is the correct answer and that the answer is “you went to Salamanca very quickly.”
Wouldn’t that be translated as “tu fuiste a Salamanca muy rápido”? Doesn’t the change in order change the translation? Or is it because the a appears after the fui ‘somewhere’ in the sentence that it changes the meaning from ser to ir.
This is one of the topics I have found very confusing.
Kind regards;
Fran
For the quiz question ¿ _____ venir a la alberca? (Do you want to come to the pool?) there are 40+ possible answers in the dropdown, including some which look like nonsense. Is this an error in the system?
It sounds to me as if the the letter "c" is variously pronounced "th" or "s" or "k". What are the rules for pronunciation of the letter "c".
is there any difference between these 2 sentences:
Sería bueno que Carmen estudiara más.
Sería bueno si Carmen estudiara más.
Gracias
I had never heard that before.So, I can retract my question.
I have seen a lot of sentences like the examples below:
1. Todavía no han llegado, su avión debe haberse retrasado.
They haven't arrived yet, their flight must have had a delay.
2. Cristina ha debido de ser una buena profesora, sus estudiantes le han comprado flores.
Cristina must have been a good teacher, her students bought her some flowers.
I respect that Spanish uses punctuation differently, in some cases, from the way English uses punctuation. However, the Spanish sentences and the English translations use a comma to separate the two sentences in each example (these examples were taken from a quiz on Kwiziq). For the Spanish, I've checked RAE and I cannot understand why these two sentences are joined by a comma when it seems they should be separated by a period or a semicolon (or even possibly adding a connector or conjunction to join them). For the English translation, in American English we would have to somehow separate these two complete sentences with some form of punctuation (period or semicolon). I have also seen similar constructions in other writing, but not usually in newspapers or academic writing. If you could provide an explanation, I would appreciate it. Thank you.
Since its being implied that this is a permanent trait of Colombian coffee?
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