Two Complete Sentences Separated by a CommaI have seen a lot of sentences like the examples below:
1. Todavía
no han llegado, su avión debe haberse retrasado.
They
haven't arrived yet, their flight must have had a delay.
2. Cristina
ha debido de ser una buena profesora, sus estudiantes le han comprado
flores.
Cristina must have been a
good teacher, her students bought her some flowers.
I respect that Spanish uses punctuation differently, in some cases, from the way English uses punctuation. However, the Spanish sentences and the English translations use a comma to separate the two sentences in each example (these examples were taken from a quiz on Kwiziq). For the Spanish, I've checked RAE and I cannot understand why these two sentences are joined by a comma when it seems they should be separated by a period or a semicolon (or even possibly adding a connector or conjunction to join them). For the English translation, in American English we would have to somehow separate these two complete sentences with some form of punctuation (period or semicolon). I have also seen similar constructions in other writing, but not usually in newspapers or academic writing. If you could provide an explanation, I would appreciate it. Thank you.
I have seen a lot of sentences like the examples below:
1. Todavía no han llegado, su avión debe haberse retrasado.
They haven't arrived yet, their flight must have had a delay.
2. Cristina ha debido de ser una buena profesora, sus estudiantes le han comprado flores.
Cristina must have been a good teacher, her students bought her some flowers.
I respect that Spanish uses punctuation differently, in some cases, from the way English uses punctuation. However, the Spanish sentences and the English translations use a comma to separate the two sentences in each example (these examples were taken from a quiz on Kwiziq). For the Spanish, I've checked RAE and I cannot understand why these two sentences are joined by a comma when it seems they should be separated by a period or a semicolon (or even possibly adding a connector or conjunction to join them). For the English translation, in American English we would have to somehow separate these two complete sentences with some form of punctuation (period or semicolon). I have also seen similar constructions in other writing, but not usually in newspapers or academic writing. If you could provide an explanation, I would appreciate it. Thank you.
The translation for
Hablasteis mucho en la conferencia, select ... yparaperoque teníais muy buenas ideas. (You spoke a lot at the conference because you had many good ideas.) should that be You spoke a lot at the conference because you had very good ideas. or muchas buenas ideas.
Hola,
In the explanation for the following sentence, it's mentioned that one of the subjunctive possibilities is that it might snow later:
Aunque esté nevando, voy a sacar al perro a pasear.
My question is: because we are using nevando, rather than nieva - is that not telling us it is snowing right now (present participle), and therefore can't be a future event?
So, the only possibility is that it is subjunctive because it is shared information that it is snowing right now?
Gracias,
Here is an example of something I have asked about before and have sent you a screen print. Unfortunately, the screen print was undecipherable for you. Here is a different approach.
B1 Pronouns
Reciprocal verbs in Spanish and position of the reflexive pronoun
Which is the correct sentence for "We can't marry each other"?
No podemos casarnos. correct No podemos nos casar. No podemos casar nos. No nos podemos casar. correct Nos no podemos casar.As you can see, there are two correct answers, but that is not what is asked in the question by indicating the, which would mean one answer. This is something which occurs quite often in these lessons.
is there any difference between these 2 sentences:
Sería bueno que Carmen estudiara más.
Sería bueno si Carmen estudiara más.
Gracias
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