Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hello, I would like a little help please.  In my head in order to differentiate between the imperfect past tense and the preterite past tense, I think "I used to...." to pick the imperfect.  In some of the examples here in kwiziq the "used to" is translated into English, such as here "Vosotros trabajabais en Madrid durante los años 80" as "I used to work in Madrid during the 80's"

However I have also seen "Soler" used for "used to" especially with 'IR" for used to go,

"Solía ir ..."
Is my "used to" translation for the imperfect to literal, and is it better to use "Soler" with verbs for "used to go" or "used to do" etc.
Sorry about the italics, I cut and paste a character and I can't turn them off!

I ask because in the recording for "Yo vivo en Córdoba" it's a "yo" sound. But for the "Yo vivo en el barrio de Gràcia" recording it's a soft j sound resulting in "jo".

When I practice at Duolingo I also sometimes here the y vs. j difference. Are both interchangeable in Spanish? If no, what are the rules for choosing j vs. y?

Or, is the recording audio simply not of good quality?

Yo veía lo que el hacía/hizo.

Would the first verb mean that e.g. I saw how he was building something and the second that I saw the reault... e.g. a house? Thank you.

What's the difference between these two? I thought they were interchangeable but the exercise 'Campsite activities' doesn't accept 'gratis'.

And, is 'canotaje' not used in Spain?

Saludos

Is this an acceptable construction for "let me know" or does it need to be "déjame que sepa"? 

La/le esperó dos horas.

Is 2 hours a direct object in, "I waited [for] 2 hours."?

es la "g" cpmpleamente silente en la palabra "guapo" o es un poco sonido de "g"?